Molecular Biology and Biotechnology
Overview
MCQ's Zoology for B.Sc. III Semester VI As per Syllabus of Sant Gadage Baba Amravati University Amravati.
MCQ's in Zoology
SANT GADAGE BABA AMRAVATI UNIVERSITY AMRAVATI
B. Sc. Degree Course in
ZOOLOGY
SYLLABUS FOR THIRD YEAR
(To be implemented from Academic Year 2012-13)
(MOLECULAR BIOLOGY AND BIOTECHNOLOGY)
Editors:
1. Dr Pankaj W. Chaudhari,
M.Sc.B.Ed, P.hD
Assistant Professor and Head,
Department of Zoology,
Shri Vitthal Rukhmini Mahavidyalaya, Sawana, Maharashtra, India
2. Dr.P.S. Mahalle
M.Sc. P.hD
Assistant Professor and Head
Department of Zoology
Vinayak Vidyan Mahavidyalaya Nandgaon Khandeshwar
ISBN:
© Dr. PANKAJ CHAUDHARI 2021. All rights reserved.
Email: 2009pankajchaudhari@gmail.com
Declaration:
Any type of reproduction of this book through any media without permission of the original author is strictly prohibited. Any violation of this will be a punishable crime under Indian Intellectual Property Right Act.
As per Sant Gadage Baba Amravati University
Amravati Syllabus
MCQ’s in
Zoology
For B.Sc., Third Year, Semester –VI
(MOLECULAR BIOLOGY AND BIOTECHNOLOGY)
Authors
1. Dr. Sachin Tayade
M.Sc. B.Ed. P. hD.
Assistant Professor & Head
Department of Zoology
Late. Pundlikrao Gawali Arts & Science College , Sirpur (Jain)
Tq. Malegaon Dist. Washim.
2. Miss. Sonali A. Tayade
M.Sc., NET –JRF, SET, IIT GATE
Assistant Professor Department of Zoology
Arts & Commerce College,
Warwat Bakal , Tq. Sangrampur Dist. Buldana
3. Dr. Madhuri S. Hingankar
M.Sc. B.Ed. P.hD.
Assistant Professor Department of Zoology
Arts & Commerce College ,
Warwat Bakal , Tq. Sangrampur Dist. Buldana
4. Dr. Megha R. Solanke
M.Sc., B.Ed., M.Phil., Ph.D)
Assistant Professor & Head
Department of Zoology
Art, Commerce College, Warwat Bakal,
Tq- Sangrampur, Dist- Buldana
5. Dr. Seema V. Keshwani
M.Sc. P.hD
Assistant Professor and Head
Department of Zoology,
M.S.P.Arts, Science & K.P.T. Commerce
College, Manora. Dist. Wasihim
6. Ms. Prajakta N. Bathe
M.Sc. NET –JRF ., SET ., IIT - GATE
Assistant Professor and Head
Department of Zoology,
Bapumiya Sirajoddin Patel
Arts , Commerece And Science College Pimpalgaon Kale
Introduction
Dear Students, Zoology is a subject that has practical applications. However, these applications are possible only when we understand the theory. Therefore, Sant Gadage Baba Amaravati University Amravati has planned to give theoretical knowledge to students while pursuing B.Sc. Zoology course. Here, the aim of students is not only to get quality knowledge but also excellent marks in university exams.
However, getting outstanding remark in academic settings requires expertise and proper guidance to write answers to questions. Students are recommended to write answers in the way that are expected by examiners who have a high workload of answer sheet evaluations. However, the university, due to COVID-19 pandemic, has decided to conduct online examination with Multiple Choice Questions. As a result, we have provided chapter wise sets of questions with answers for practice and explanation of correct answers wherever possible. Study of these questions will help students to achieve up the mark success in an exam.
It is the responsibility of students to convey their knowledge to their mentors in a way which they understand easily. This book has been written to make students acquainted with the ideas and tricks to write answers in the exam so that their evaluators will feel pleased and it would result to get justice to the knowledge of students. If students prepared the fields on which questions are launched frequently, they would achieve a remarkably outstanding score. A high percentage is required by students to get admitted in higher courses readily as they count the same along with their entrance exam scores. Nevertheless, some academic organizations consider only graduation score to get admission in Post Graduation course. However, this number is less, and many institutes conduct their Entrance Exam for entries, and their scores are added with graduation score to make a merit list.
We are sure that the book will be a booster dose in the academic careers of undergraduate students and assist them in conquering most significant landmark in their educational mission. We have best wishes for all.
Dr. PANKAJ W. CHAUDHARI
Assistant Professor and Head
Departemtnof Zoology
Shri Vitthal Rukhmini Mahavdyalaya Sawana,
Tq. Mahagaon Dist. Yavatmal
ZOOLOGY S- 6
(MOLECULAR BIOLOGY AND BIOTECHNOLOGY)
UNIT – I :
Genetic material
Genetic material:- definition, Experiments to prove DNA as genetic material: Griffiths transformation experiments with bacteriophage infections, Avery and co-workers experiments, and Hershey and Chase experiment. Chemistry and types DNA(A,B,Z) Mitochondrial DNA; Chemistry, types and function of RNA: mRNA, tRNA and rRNA and Non Genetic RNA.
UNIT - II
DNA replication
DNA replication: semi conservative method; experiment by Messelson and Stahl.
Concept of genes, one gene one enzyme hypothesis, one gene one Polypeptide theory.; A brief account of Concept and action of cistron, split genes, overlapping genes, jumping genes, Genetic diseases: Spinocerebellar ataxia.
UNIT–III
Genetic code
Genetic code and its features, Protein synthesis-transcription and processing of mRNA, translation-different steps, Gene regulation: (promoter and operator), Operon models, and Lacoperon model of E.Coli. Genetic regulation in Eukaryotes-Britten Davidson Model.
UNIT–IV
Mutation
Mutation: Definition-mutation theory of DeVries-different types of mutations, - molecular basis of mutation: substitution and frameshift mutations, chromosomal aberrations-structural(deletion, addition, inversion and translocation),numerical (euploidy and aneuploidy). Natural and induced mutations-significance of mutations.
DNA repair process.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Southern, Northern and Western blotting techniques, DNA finger printing.
UNIT – V
Biotechnology
Biotechnology: Genetic Engineering: Recombinant DNA technology and gene cloning-enzymes in recombinant DNA technology, Splicing and cloning of genes, vectors (plasmid and phage vectors), gene Transfer. Somatic cell hybridization, hybridoma technology, and monoclonal antibodies. Practical applications and suspected hazards of biotechnology and genetic engineering in animals.
UNIT-VI :
Immunology
Immunology: Introduction to immune system: Innate and adaptive immunity, Types and production of immune cells ; Complement system.
Humoral Immunity: Antigen and haptens, Antibody: types function, and production.
Cell mediated immunity: T-cell receptors, T helper cell and lymphocyte activation. Role of cytotoxic T-cell..ELIZA Technique RIA.
(Molecular Biology and Biotechnology)
UNIT I
Genetic Material (DNA and RNA)
A. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Q. 1. Which bacteria did Griffith use in his experiment?
a. Escherichia coli b. Diplococcus pneumonae
c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Vibrio cholerae
Q. 2. Which strain causes mice to get sick and die?
a. R-strain b. S-strain
c. Heat killed S-strain d. All of the above
Q. 3. Which strain has a rough coat?
a. R-strain b. S-strain
c. Both R and S- strain d. Neither R nor S- strain
Q. 4. What happened to the mice when live R strain mixed with heat killed S strain injected to them?
a. all mice survived b. all mice died
c. half of them survived d. half of them died
Q. 5. Griffith’s experiment is known as….
a. bacterial transformation b. Bacterial translation
c. Bacterial replication d. Bacterial transcription
Q. 6. Frederick Griffith was a _____.
a. French scientist b. American scholar
c. British bacteriologist d. German geneticist
Q. 7. Griffith's experiment illustrated a principle where a bacterial cell was changed from one form into another. This process is called _____.
a. transcription b. translation
c. twitching c. transformation
Q. 8. Characteristic(s) of genetic material is/are.
a. It should be able to replicate
b. It should be inherited from generation to generation
c. It should possess high degree of variation
d. All of the above
Q. 9. ……. is the unit of heredity.
a. gene b. DNA
c. chromosome d. RNA
Q. 10. Which strain of D. pneumoniae was virulent?
a. R-strain b S-strain
c. Both R and S-strain d. None of these
Q. 11. Which strain of D. pneumoniae was non-virulent?
a. R-strain b. S-strain
c. Both R and S-strain d. None of these
Q. 12. What conclusion was drawn from the Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod experiment?
a. DNA is responsible for transforming S-cells to S-cells
b. DNA is responsible for transforming R-cells to S-cells
c. DNA is responsible for transforming S-cells to R-cells
d. All of the above
Q. 13. The experiment of Hershey and Chase is also known as…….experiment.
a. Blender b. Grinder
c. Mixer d. Oven
Q. 14. In bacteriophage, the head is composed of ….
a. only protein b. only DNA-core
c. protein and DNA-core d. None of these
Q. 15. In Blender experiment, DNA of bacteriophage was labelled with….
a. P32 b. S35
c. S32 d. P35
Q. 16. In Blender experiment, protein of bacteriophage was labelled with….
a. P32 b. S35
c. S32 d. P35
Q. 17. Whose experiment were Avery, McCarty and MacLeod trying to prove?
a. Thomas H. Morgan b. James Watson
c. Francis Crick d. Frederick Griffith
Q.18. The nucleic acids were first discovered by….
a. Watson b. Crick
c. Miesher d. Margit
Q. 19. The bases are held together in a DNA double helix by hydrogen bonds. These bonds are….
a. Ionic bonds b. Covalent bonds
c. Non-covalent bonds d. Van der Waals forces
Q. 20. A nucleoside is…..
a. a nucleotide without sugar b. a nucleotide without sugar
c. a nucleotide without phosphate d. a nucleotide without nitrogenous base
Q. 21. A nucleoside is composed of…..
a. a base + a sugar + a phosphate b. a base + a sugar
c. a base + a phosphate d. a sugar + a phosphate
Q. 22. Adjacent nucleotides are joined by
a. covalent bond b. phosphodiester bond
c. ionic d. None of these
Q. 23. The sugar present in DNA is….
a. Hexose b. Triose
c. Tetrose d. Pentose
Q. 24. Which of the following DNA molecule has left handed helix?
a. Z-DNA b. A-DNA
c. B-DNA d. M-RNA
Q. 25. Genetic material in plant viruses is….
a. DNA b. RNA
c. both DNA & RNA d. protein
Q. 26. The nitrogenous bases are attached to the …. Carbon atom of the deoxyribose molecules
a. first b. third
c. fifth d. second
Q. 27. In a nucleotide the phosphate (phosphoric acid) molecule is attached to the …. Carbon atom of the deoxyribose molecules.
a. first b. third
c. fifth d. second
Q.28. The phosphate molecule of a nucleotide is joined to the…… Carbon atom of the deoxyribose molecules of the next nucleotide
a. first b. third
c. fifth d. second
Q. 29. Short chains formed of less than….. nucleotides are called oligonucleotides.
a. 30 b. 200
c. 300 d. 20
Q. 30. Long chains formed of more than 20 nucleotides.
a. Polynucleotides b. Mesonuclotides
c. Oligonucleotides d. None of these
Q. 31. Adenine (A) and thymine (T) of a DNA molecule are held together by …..
a. one hydrogen bond b. two hydrogen bonds
c. three hydrogen bonds d. covalent bond
Q. 32. In a single strand of a DNA molecule, nucleotides are linked by covalent bonds between…..
a. phosphate and nitrogen base b. nitrogen bases
c. sugar and phosphate d. sugar and nitrogen base
Q. 33. The number of cytosine bases in a DNA molecule….
a. is equal to the number of adenine
b. is equal to the number of uracil bases
c. is equal to the number of guanine bases
d. Can not be predicted
Q. 34. Genetic information in a DNA molecule is coded in the……
a. base pairing
b. proportion of each base present
c. sequence of nucleotides
d. the turning pattern of the helix
Q. 35. Friedrich Meischer removed nuclei from pus cells and found that they contained a chemical which he called……
a. Nuclein b. Zeatin
c. Cyclin d. Cystine
Q. 36. If the sequence of bases along one side of a DNA molecule is AAGCT, then the complementary sequence of bases on the other side of the DNA molecule is……..
a. TTCGA b. AAGCT
c. GGTAC d. UUCGA
Q. 37. J. D. Watson and F.H.C. Crick published their first paper in on the double helix model of DNA in …..
a. 1963 b. 1953 c. 1943 d. 1933
Q. 38. The pitch in Z-DNA is…..
a. 60 0A b. 28 0A c. 34 0A d. 31 0A
Q.39. Sugar-phosphate backbone of Z-DNA is….. in shape.
a. linear b. circular c. zig-zag d. none of these
Q. 40. Which among the following is not initiation codon?
a. AUG b. AUA c. AUU d. UAG
Q. 41. In mammals, each double stranded circular mtDNA molecule consists of …… base pairs.
a. 15000-17000 b. 1500-1700 c. 150-170 d. 15-17
Q. 42. Which among the following is mitochondrial disease?
a. exercise intolerance b. Kearn-Sayre Syndrome
c. Pearson marrow-pancreas syndrome d. All of these
Q. 43. RNA found ….
a. in cytoplasm only
b. in nucleus only
c. both in cytoplasm and nucleus
d. neither in cytoplasm nor in nucleus
Q. 44. Thymine of DNA is replaced by ……. in RNA.
a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Thymine d. Uracil
Q. 45. What percentage is attributed by the tRNA of the total RNA in the cell?
a. 10-15 % b. 20-25 % c. 30-35 % d. 40-45 %
Q. 46. The clover leaf structure is a two-dimensional structure of ….
a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. None of these
Q. 47. The three dimensional structure of tRNA is …..
a. L-shaped b. I-shaped c. T-shaped d. S-shaped
Q. 48. Which of the following RNAs associates with certain protein to form a ribosome?
a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. All of these
Q. 49. Nucleoli are mainly formed by….
a. chromatin b. RNA c. DNA, RNA and Protein d. None of these
Q. 50. Watson and Crick (1953) have proposed a model for the structure of DNA molecule, the DNA molecule is….
a. mono helical b. penta helical c. octa helical d. double helical
Q. 51. RNA is…..
a. single stranded b. double stranded c. triple stranded d. Both (A) and (B)
Q. 52. The sugar in RNA is…..
a. ribose b. hexose c. Deoxyribose d. fructose
Q. 53. Nucleotides in RNA are joined by….
a. 3’5’ phosphodiester bond b. 3’4’ phosphodiester bond
c. 3’2’ phosphodiester bond d. 3’6’ phosphodiester bond
Q. 54. Which of the following RNA serves as adapter molecule during protein synthesis?
a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. hnRNA
Q. 55. rRNA is synthesized in…….
a. nucleus b. cytoplasm c. PER d. nucleolus
Q. 56. C-DNA is ……
a. complementary to mRNA b. complementary to tRNA
c. complementary to rRNA d. complementary to hnRNA
Q. 57. Which of the following arm of t-RNA serve as side of attachment for amino acid?
a. Acceptor arm b. D- arm
c. Anticodon arm d. t-psi arm
Q.58. How is the nucleotide sequence in the anti-codon arm of t-RNA?
a. Same as in codon b. Opposite to the codon sequence
c. Not constant d. None of the above
Q.59. Which of the following is the function of r-RNA?
a. Maintains shape of ribosome b. Protein synthesis
c. Binds m-RNA and ribosome d. All of the above
Q. 60. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. In prokaryotes, mostly the m-RNA is mono-cistronic
b. The acceptor arm consist of base paired stem
c. r-RNA perform some of the enzymatic activity
d. Prokaryotic ribosome contains 3 r-RNA
Q.61. The m-RNA is synthesized in the nucleus in which form?
a. Heterogenous RNA b. Homogenous RNA
c. Homologous RNA d. None of the above
Q. 62. RNA contains the repeating units of…
a. Deoxyribonucleotides b. Ribonucleotides
c. Deoxyribonucleosides d. Ribonucleosides
Q. 63. Anticodon is present in…..
a. DNA b. tRNA
b. rRNA d. mRNA
Q. 64. RNA contains Uridine, it is a…
a. pyrimidine b. purine
c. nucleotide d. nucleoside
Q. 65. Deoxyribose sugar + Adenine= ?
a. Deoxyadenosine b. Deoxyguanosine
c. Deoxycytidine d. Deoxythymidine
Q. 66. Deoxyribose sugar + Guanine= ?
a. Deoxyadenosine b. Deoxyguanosine
c. Deoxycytidine d. Deoxythymidine
Q. 67. Deoxyribose sugar + Cytosine= ?
a. Deoxyadenosine b. Deoxyguanosine
c. Deoxycytidine d. Deoxythymidine
Q. 68. Deoxyribose sugar + Thymine= ?
a. Deoxyadenosine b. Deoxyguanosine
c. Deoxycytidine d. Deoxythymidine
Q. 69. Phosphate group + Deoxyribose + Adenine = ?
a. Adenine nucleotide b. Guanine nucleotide
c. Cytosine nucleotide d. Thymine nucleotide
Q. 70. Phosphate group + Deoxyribose + Guanine = ?
a. Adenine nucleotide b. Guanine nucleotide
c. Cytosine nucleotide d. Thymine nucleotide
Q. 71. Phosphate group + Deoxyribose + Cytosine = ?
a. Adenine nucleotide b. Guanine nucleotide
c. Cytosine nucleotide d. Thymine nucleotide
Q. 72. Phosphate group + Deoxyribose + Thymine = ?
a. Adenine nucleotide b. Guanine nucleotide
c. Cytosine nucleotide d. Thymine nucleotide
Q. 73. Number of arms in Clover leaf model of tRNA.
a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Six
Q. 74. Bases in loop of mini arm of tRNA.
a. 40-50 b. 400-500 c. 4000-5000 d. 4-5
Q. 75. Blender experiment was performed by
a. Mendel b. Hershey and Chase c. Griffith d. Avery
Q. 76. Base pairs present per spiral of double stranded B-DNA.
a. 10 b. 12 c. 13 d. 11
Q. 77. DNA is component of
a. ribosomes b. viruses c. chromosomes d. protein
Q. 78. RNA is component of
a. ribosomes b. viruses c. chromosomes d. protein
Q. 79. DNA strands are antiparallel because of
a. hydrogen bonds b. phosphodiester bonds
c. disulphide bonds d. glycosidic bonds
Q. 80. Chargoff’s rule is applicable to
a. single stranded RNA b. single stranded DNA and RNA
c. single stranded DNA d. double stranded DNA
Q. 81. Which ratio is constant for DNA?
a. A+G / T+C b. A+T / G+C
c. A+C / U+G d. A=U / G+C
Q. 82. Diameter of B-DNA double helix is…
a. 20 0A b. 10 0A c. 30 0A d. 40 0A
Q. 83. The two strands off DNA are oriented as
a. 3’ – 5’ and 5’ – 3’ b. 3’ – 3’ and 5’ – 5’
c. 3’ – 5’ and 5’ – 5’ d. 3’ – 3’ and 5’ – 3’
Q. 84. The clover leaf model of tRNA has
a. Accepter arm and C arm b. Anticodon arm c.D arm d. All of these
Q. 85. The mean diameter of DNA double helix is
a. 20 0A b. 3.4 0A c. 4.5 0A d. 10 0A
Q. 86. The length of a helix of DNA is
a. 20 0A b. 34 0A c. 3.4 0A d. 10 0A
Q. 87. Which arm of a tRNA molecule hydrogen binds to mRNA molecule?
a. Codon b. Anticodon c. 5C end of the tRNA d. 3C end of the tRNA
Q. 88. How many types of ribonucleic acids are known?
a. Three b. Two c. Four d. Five
Q. 89. The element absent in RNA is
a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen c. Sulphur d. Hydrogen
Q. 90. If adenine is 30 %, then what would be the percentage of guanine?
a. 10 % b. 30 % c. 70 % d. 20 %
Q. 91. Purines of DNA are represented by
a. Uracil and thymine b. Guanine and adenine
c. Uracil and cytosine d. Thymine and cytosine
Q. 92. Pyridines of DNA are represented by
a. Uracil and thymine b. Guanine and adenine
c. Uracil and cytosine d. Thymine and cytosine
Q. 93. Pyridines of RNA are represented by
a. Uracil and thymine b. Guanine and adenine
c. Uracil and cytosine d. Thymine and cytosine
Q. 94. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide in not having
a. Phosphate b. Sugar
c. Nitrogen base d. Phosphate and Sugar
Q. 95. The substance that acts as a connecting link between two generations
a. Deoxyribonucleic acid b. Ribonucleic acid
c. Deoxyribonucleic acid + Ribonucleic acid d.Cytoplasm
Q. 96. Which is the hereditary material in bacteria?
a. Nucleic acids b. Nucleic acids and cytoplasm
c. Nucleic acid and Histone d. None of these
Q. 97. Unit of nucleic acid is
a. nucleotide b. nucleoside
c. nucleic acid d. All of these
Q. 98. mRNA is produced in
a. Golgi apparatus b. Ribosome
c. Nucleus d. Endoplasmic reticulum
Q. 99. DNA is double helix and
a. Complementary and parallel b. Complementary and antiparallel
c. Without supercoils d. Always circular
Q. 100. The function of tRNA is
a. Production of mRNA b. Production of ribosome
c. Production of microsome d. Selection of amino acids
Q. 101. DNA is genetic material
a. only in prokaryotes
b. only in eukaryotes
c. in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
d. in prokaryotes, eukaryotes and some viruses
Q. 102. Chromatin is composed of
a. nucleic acids and proteins b. only nucleic acids
c. only proteins d. None of these
Answer Key
A. Multiple Choice Questions
1. b. Dipplococcus pneumonae 2. b. S-strain 3. a. R-strain 4. b. all mice died 5. a. bacterial transformation 6. c. British bacteriologist 7. d. transformation 8. d. All of the above 9. a. gene 10. b. S-strain 11. a. R-strain 12. b. DNA is responsible for transforming R-cells to S-cells 13. a. Blender 14. c. protein and DNA-core 15. a. P32 16. b. S35 17. d. Frederick Griffith 18. c. Miesher 19. c. Non-covalent bonds. 20. c. a nucleotide without phosphate 21. b. a base + a sugar 22. b. phosphodiester bond 23. d. Pentose 24. a. Z-DNA 25. b. RNA 26. a. first 27. c. fifth 28. b. third 29. d. 20 30. a. Polynucleotides 31. b. two hydrogen bonds 32. c. sugar and phosphate 33. c. is equal to the number of guanine bases 34. c. sequence of nucleotides 35. a. nuclein 36. a.TTCGA 37. b. 1953 38. a. 60 0A 39. c. zig-zag 40. d. UAG 41. a. 15000-17000 42. d. All of these 43. c. both in cytoplasm and nucleus 44. d. Uracil 45. a. 10-15 % 46. b. tRNA 47. a. L-shaped 48. c. rRNA 49. b. RNA 50. d. double helical 51. b. double stranded 52. a. ribose 53. a. 3’5’ phosphodiester bond 54. b. tRNA 55. d. nucleolus 56. a. complementary to mRNA 57. a. Acceptor arm 58. b. Opposite to the codon sequence 59. d. All of the above 60. a. In prokaryotes, mostly the m-RNA is mono-cistronic 61. a. Heterogenous RNA 62. b. Ribonucleotides 63. c. rRNA 64. d. nucleoside 65. a. Deoxyadenosine 66. b. Deoxyguanosine 67. c. Deoxycytidine 68. d. Deoxythymidine 69. a. Adenine nucleotide 70. b. Guanine nucleotide 71. c. Cytosine nucleotide 72. d. Thymine nucleotide 73. c. Five 74. d. 4-5 75. b. Hershey and Chase 76. a. 10 77. c. chromosomes 78. a. ribosome 79. b. phosphodiester bond 80. d. double stranded DNA 81. a. A+G / T+C 82. a. 20 0A 83. a. 3’-5’ and 5’-3’ 84. d. All of these 85. a. 20 0A 86. b. 34 0A 87. b. Anticodon 88. a. Three 89. c. Sulphur 90. d. 20% 91. b. Guanine and adenine 92. d. Thymine and cytosine 93. c. Uracil and cytosine 94. a. Phosphate 95. a. Deoxyribonucleic acid 96. a. Nucleic acids 97. a. nucleotide 98. c. Nucleus 99. b. Complementary and antiparallel 100. d. Selection of amino acid 101. d. in prokaryotes, eukaryotes and some viruses 102. a. nucleic acids and proteins
B. Fill in the blanks.
1. Virulence is determined by……
2. Genetic transformation was first reported by…… in Diplococcus pneumoniae.
3. The left handed DNA is……
4. ……….. is the longest type of RNA
5. The name messenger RNA was given by…….
6. …… is also called soluble RNA.
7. Mini arm of Clover leaf model of tRNA is…….. arm.
8. …….. coiling is seen in A, B, C and E-DNA.
9.Sugar phosphate backbone of Z-DNA is …….. in shape.
10. ……… of Z-DNA is flat.
11. The smallest mitochondrial DNA molecules are found in ……
12. The largest mitochondrial DNA molecules are found in…..
13. In DNA, thymine (T) binds to ……..
14. In DNA, cytosine (C) binds to …….
15. In Hershey and Chase experiment, DNA of T2 phage is labelled with…….
16. In Hershey and Chase experiment, protein of T2 phage is labelled with…….
17. The tRNA Clover leaf model consists of ……. arms.
18. Nitrogenous bases are never exposed in ……
19. Nitrogenous bases are always exposed in ……
20. The purine and pyrimidine ratio in DNA is …..
21. The name messenger RNA was given by…….
22. …….. is also called soluble RNA.
23. ……. is a component of ribosomes.
24. ……… is a component of chromosomes.
25. ………. survives throughout the life span of cell.
26. ……. has short life span and is replaced constantly.
27. ……. DNAs do not occur in vivo.
28. Z-DNA was discovered by…..
29. …….. is the skinniest DNA having 12 base pairs per turn.
30. Ribosomal RNA is also called……… RNA.
31. tRNA molecules are synthesized at particular regions of DNA by a process called….
32. In DNA molecule, adenine is bound to thymine by…… hydrogen bonds.
33. Sudden blindness in adults occur in disease……. due to mutation in mitochondrial DNA.
34. ……. causes a person to lose full function of heart, eye and muscle movements due to mutation in mitochondrial DNA.
35. The RNA present in ribosome is called……
Answer Key
B. Fill in the Blank
- Genetic factor 2. Griffith 3. Z-DNA 4. mRNA 5. Jacob and Monod 6. tRNA 7. Variable 8. Right handed 9. Zig-zag 10. Major groove 11. higher animals ,;12. plants 13. adenine (A) 14. guanine 15. 35S label 16. 32P label 17. five 18. DNA 19. RNA 20. 1:1 21. Jacob and Monod 22. tRNA 23. RNA 24. DNA 25. DNA 26. RNA 27. C and E 28. Rich 29. Z-DNA 30. insoluble 31. transcription 32. two 33. Laber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON) 34. Kearns-Sayre Syndrome 35. Ribosomal RNA
C. True or false
1. The number of DNA molecules is equivalent to the number of chromosomes per cell.
2. The purine and pyrimidine components occurs in unequal amounts.
3. DNA is found in the cells of all living organisms except plant viruses.
4. The amount of adenine (A) is equivalent to the amount of thymine (T).
5. The amount of cytosine (C) is equivalent to the amount of gaunine (G).
6. The Watson and Crick’s model of DNA illustrates not only its chemical structure but also the mechanism by which it duplicates itself.
7. DNA acts as the carrier of genetic information from generation to generation
8. DNA does not control all developmental process of an organism and all life activities.
9. All types of RNAs are synthesized by DNA.
10. B-DNA, A-DNA, C-DNA are left handed DNA except Z-DNA.
11. In DNA molecule total number of purine is always equal to the total number of pyrimidine bases.
12. A+G = T+C
13. The phosphate groups in the phosphodiester bond are positively charged.
14. DNA is composed of Pentose sugar containing 5 carbon atoms.
15. During linkages phosphoric acid (H3PO4) loses H atom and becomes phosphate group.
16. Cytosine always pairs with adenine.
17. In a double helix both grooves, major and minor grooves are equal in size.
18. Each turn of helix has distance of 34 0A.
19. The major groove is 22 0A wide while the minor groove is 12 0A wide.
20. The distance between two adjacent nucleotides is 3.4 0A.
21. The angle between successive base pairs is called pitch angle.
22. The angle between successive base pairs is 630.
23. Each turn of helix contains 10 base pairs.
24. Z- DNA is formed only when purines and pyrimidines are present alternately in the chain (CG or AT)
25. The mammalian mtDNA is double stranded circular in shape.
26. Methylation of uracil produces thymine.
27. RNA is double stranded molecule.
28. RNA is linear or folded at certain regions to form loops.
29. RNA can both replicate and organize other biochemical.
30. mRNA has the highest molecular weight,
31. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is called mRNA precursor.
32. In prokaryotes, mostly the m-RNA is mono-cistronic.
33. The acceptor arm consist of base paired stem.
34. r-RNA perform some of the enzymatic activity.
35. Prokaryotic ribosome contains 3 r-RNA.
36. DNA synthesis always proceeds in 3’- 5’ direction.
37. The quantity of DNA is constant in each cell of a species.
38. The quantity of RNA is constant in each cell of a species.
39. The nitrogenous bases are not exposed in RNA.
40. The nitrogenous bases are not exposed in DNA.
41. In DNA molecule, purines are equal to pyrimidine.
42. RNAs are able to replicate.
43. The two strands of DNA are oriented as 3’-5’ and 5’-3’
44. RNA nucleotides contain the five carbon sugar ribose
45. Hershey and Chase were the first two scientists to prove that genetic material is composed of proteins.
46. If a DNA molecule is found to be composed of 40% thymine, 20% guanine would be expected.
47. The Hershey-Chase research showed that DNA was the molecule of heredity.
48. DNA is composed of only one strand.
49. A chromosome is made up of tightly coiled strands of DNA
50. Nitrogen bases are held together by nitrogen bonds.
51. B-DNA, A-DNA, C-DNA are right handed DNA except Z-DNA.
C. True or False
Answer Key
1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. False True 24. True 25. True 26. True 27. False 28. True 29. True 30. True 31. True 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. False 37. True 38. False 39. False 40. True 41.True 42. False 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. False 47. True 48. False 49. True 50. False 51. True
D. Answer in one sentence
Q. 1. Which of virus has double stranded RNA as a genetic material?
=> Reoviruses has double stranded RNA as a genetic material.
Q. 2. Which RNA is called mRNA precursor?
=> hnRNA
Q. 3. Define: hnRNA
=> The primary transcript in eukaryotes is much larger than the mature mRNA and is called heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA).
Q. 4. Why DNA synthesis always proceeds from 5’ to 3’?
=> DNA synthesis always proceeds from 5’ to 3’ because new nucleotides are always added to the 3’ carbon of the last nucleotide.
Q. 5. What the deoxyribonucleotides composed of?
=> Each deoxyribonucleotides composed of a nitrogenous base, a deoxyribose sugar and one or more phosphate groups.
Q. 6. What is chromosome?
=> A chromosome is an organized structure of DNA and protein found in the nucleus of every cell.
Q. 7. Define: Genetic material
=> The material (chemical substance) of which genes are composed of is called genetic material.
Q. 8. Which strain of Diplococcus pneumoniae is virulent?
=> S- strain.
Q. 9. Which strain of Diplococcus pneumoniae is non-virulent?
=> R- strain.
Q. 10. What is DNA?
=> DNA is a group of molecules that is responsible for carrying and transmitting the hereditary materials or the genetic instructions from parents to offsprings.
Q. 11. Who discovered the Z-DNA?
=> Andres Wang and Alexander Rich.
Q. 12. Who discovered DNA?
=> Friedrich Miescher (1869)
Q. 13. What is nucleotide?
=> The monomeric unit of nucleic acids is called nucleotide.
Q. 14. What are called the “Key of Life”?
=> The nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are called the key of life.
Q. 15. What are called the “Secrete of Life”?
=> The nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are called the secrete of life.
Q. 16. What are the four nitrogen base pairs present in DNA?
=> Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G) and Cytosine (C) are four types of nitrogen bases.
Q. 17. What is Chargaff’s rule?
=> Number of nitrogenous bases in the DNA was present in equal quantities. The amount of A is equal to T, whereas the amount of C is equal to G.
Q. 18. What is the ratio of purine and pyrimidine bases?
=> The ratio of purine and pyrimidine bases is 1:1.
Q. 19. What are genes?
=> Genes are the small segments of DNA, consisting mostly of 250 – 2 million base pairs.
20. Why DNA is called a Polynucleotide Molecule?
=>The DNA is called a polynucleotide because the DNA molecule is composed of nucleotides – deoxyadenylate (A) deoxyguanylate (G) deoxycytidylate (C) and deoxythymidylate (T), which are combined to create long chains called a polynucleotide.
21. What is the structure of DNA?
=> DNA is a double helical structure composed of nucleotides. The two helices are joined together by hydrogen bonds. The DNA also bears a sugar-phosphate backbone.
22. What are the three different types of DNA?
=> A-DNA, B-DNa and Z-DNA are the three different types of DNA.
23. How is Z-DNA different from other forms of DNA?
=> Z-DNA is a left-handed double helix. The helix winds to the left in a zig-zag manner. On the contrary, A and B-DNA are right-handed DNA.
24. What are the functions of DNA?
=> Replication, gene expression, mutation, transcription and translation are the functions of DNA.
25. What type of DNA is found in humans?
=> B-DNA is found in humans. It is a right-handed double-helical structure.
26. What is RNA?
=> RNA is a polymer composed of four different repeating units: Adenosine, Cytosine, Guanosine and Uridine (A, C, G, and U).
27. What is 5’ extremity?
=> The phosphate-ended extremity is called a 5’-extremity
28. What is 3’-extremity?
=> The pentose-ended extremity is called a 3’-extremity.
29. According to the Watson-Crick model, how many polynucleotide chains does a DNA molecule have?
=> A DNA molecule is formed by two polynucleotide chains bound in antiparallel mode (5’-3’ to 3’-5’) and which form a helix structure.
30. What is the rule for the pairing of nitrogenous bases within the DNA molecule?
=> The rule for the pairing of the nitrogenous bases of the polynucleotide chains that form DNA molecules is that pyrimidine base binds to purine base, under the condition that thymine (T) binds to adenine (A) and cytosine (C) binds to guanine (G).
31. What is the complementary sequence of nitrogenous bases for an AGCCGTTAAC fragment of a DNA chain?
=> TCGGCAATTG
32. What is histone octamer?
=> The nucleosome core has an eight histone complex called as histone octamer.
33. What are the types of DNA?
=> A-DNA, B-DNA and Z-DNA
34. What are the types of RNA?
=> mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
35. What are the termination codons?
=> UAG, UAA and UGA are the termination codons.
36. Which are the initiation codon?
=> AUG, AUA and AUU are the initiation codon.
37. How many base pairs are present in each double stranded circular mtDNA molecule?
=> 15000-17000 base pairs are present in each double stranded circular mtDNA molecule.
38. Which strand of mtDNA is called heavy strand (H-strand)?
=> The guanine rich strand is called as the heavy strand of mtDNA.
39. Which strand of mtDNA is called light strand (L-strand).?
=> The cytosine rich strand is called as the light strand of mtDNA.
40. How many genes are encoded by heavy strand of mtDNA?
=> Heavy strand of mtDNA encodes 28 genes.
41. How many genes are encoded by light strand of mtDNA?
=> Light strand of mtDNA encodes 9 genes.
42. Who discovered the mitochondrial DNA?
=> Mitochondrial DNA was discovered by Margit Nass and Sylvan Nass.
43. How many genes are present in mitochondrial DNA?
=> 37 genes are present in mitochondrial DNA.
44. What does the abbreviation DNA stand for?
=> Deoxyribonucleic acid.
45. Why DNA is important?
=> DNA is important because it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things.
46. What does the abbreviation RNA stand for?
=> Ribonucleic acid.
47. What is purine?
=> A purine is a heterocyclic aromatic organic compound consisting of a pyrimidine ring fused to an imidazole ring.
48. What is pyrimidine?
=> A pyrimidine is a heterocyclic aromatic organic compound similar to benzene and pyridine, containing two nitrogen atoms at position 1 and 3 of six membered ring.
49. Who proved DNA as genetic material by bacterial transformation experiment?
=> Frederick Griffith
50. Which isotopes were used in blender experiment?
=> P32 and S35 isotopes were used in blender experiment.
51. How many base pairs per turn in B-DNA?
=> There are 10 base pairs per turn in B-DNA.
52. How many base pairs per turn in A-DNA?
=> There are 11 base pairs per turn in A-DNA.
53. How many base pairs per turn in Z-DNA?
=> There are 18 base pairs per turn in Z-DNA.
54. Name any two mitochondrial diseases.
=> Laber’s Hereditary Optic Neuropathy and Pearson marrow-pancreas syndrome
55. What is genetic RNA?
=> The RNA which functions as genetic material is called genetic RNA.
56. Name any two plant viruses that possess RNA as a genetic material.
=> TMV and Wound tumour
57. Name any animal plant viruses that possess RNA as a genetic material.
=> Influenza virus and Poliomyelitis
58. What is non-genetic RNA?
=> The RNA which do not functions as genetic material is called genetic RNA.
59. What are the functions of non-genetic RNA?
=> Protein synthesis, DNA replication
60. What is codon?
=> Every three successive unpaired nitrogenous bases present on mRNA is called a codon.
61. How many amino acids are specified by each codon?
=> Each codon specifies one amino acid.
62. Why mRNA is called template RNA?
=> mRNA forms template for protein synthesis and hence called template RNA.
63. What is the function of mRNA?
=> mRNA carries message or genetic information about the protein to be synthesized from the DNA to cytoplasm.
64. What is the function of rRNA?
=> It provides specific sites for the binding of mRNA and tRNA on ribosomes during protein synthesis.
65. Who proposed Clover Leaf Model of tRNA?
=> Holley (1965) proposed Clover Leaf Model of tRNA.
66. Name the arms of tRNA.
=> Amino acid accepter arm, D-arm, anticodon arm, variable arm and TψC arm.
67. What happens when live S-strain of D. pneumoniae injected to mice?
=> When live S-strain of D. pneumoniae injected to mice they died due to pneumonia
68. What was the conclusion of Avery, Macleod and McCarty experiment?
=> The transformation of R-cells to S-cells took place when DNA extract was added and hence DNA is the genetic material.
69. Who proved that DNA is a genetic material of bacteriophages?
=> Hershey and Chase proved that genetic material of bacteriophages.
70. How many types of rRNA?
=> There are 7 types of rRNA.
71. Enlist the seven types of rRNA.
=> 28S rRNA, 23S rRNA, 18S rRNA, 16S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA. 55S rRNA and 5S rRNA.
Unit II:
DNA Replication
- MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
- First demonstration of semi conservative replication of DNA takesplace in
a)Escherichia coli
b) Streptociccuspneumonae
c) Salmomellatyphimuriam
d) Drosophila melanogaster
- Which of the following enzyme is used to join the okazakifrgments
- DNA polymerase b) DNA ligase c) Primase d) Endonuclease
- Which code is repeated in spinocerebral ataxia disease.
- CAG b) TTT c) AAA d) GAC
- Which of the following enzyme is responsible for unwinding of DNA ?
- Ligase b) Hexonuclease c) Helicase d) Topoisomerase
- Gene as unit of recombination is called as
- Cistron b) Recon c) Muton d) None of this
- First Jumping gene is discovered by
- Matthew Meselson b) Franklin stahl c) Morgan d) Barbara McClintock
- First jumping gene is discovered by Barbara McClinctock in
- Maiz plant b) Drosophila c) Chironomous d) Pea plant
- Okazaki fragments are
- RNA primers for DNA synthesis
- Short DNA fragments after nuclease digestion
- Newly synthesized DNA fragments
- Short stretches of DNA attached to RNA primers on lagging strands
- In which type of replication both strands of parent double helix would be conserved and the new DNA molecule would consist of two newly synthesized strands
- Dispersive replication
- Conservative replication
- Semi conservative replication
- None of these
- Transposons are also called as
- Chironomous
- Running genes
- Jumping genes
- Up and down genes
- During DNA replication RNA primers are remove by
- DNA Polymerase I
- DNA Polymerase III
- RNA Polymerase I
- RNA Polymerase II
- Which enzyme remove supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of the replication fork
- Helicase
- DNA polymerase
- Primase
- Topoisomerases
- In which phase of cell cycle DNA is replicated
- S Phase
- G1 phase
- G2 phase
- M phase
- Single-stranded binding protein help to
- Keep the parental strand apart
- Breaks the hydrogen bond
- Remove the RNA primer
- None of this
- Which of the following enzyme synthesizes a daughter strand of DNA.
- Single stranded binding protein
- Primase
- DNA Polymerase I
- DNA Polymerase III
- Which is smallest segment of DNA capable of being separated and exchange with other chromosomes
- Cistron
- Recon
- Muton
- None of these
- Which of the following is the smallest unit of genetic material which when changed or mutated produces a phenotypic trait ?
- Muton
- Cistron
- Recon
- All of these
- Which genes have additive effects on the action of other genes
- Lethal genes
- Multiple genes
- Cumulative genes
- Pleiotropic genes
- Which of the following genes able to produce changes in more than one character
- Pleiotropic genes
- Lethal genes
- Cumulative genes
- All of these
- Which genes cannot produce a character by itself but interacts with other to produce a modified effect
- Basic genes
- Lethal genes
- Multiple genes
- Modifying genes
- Which gene inhibites the expression of another gene ?
- Inhibitory genes
- Lethal genes
- Multiple genes
- Basic gene
- Who is the father of Genetics ?
- Bateson
- Mendel
- Morgan
- Bateson
- The alternate form of gene is called as
- Recessive character
- Alternate type
- Allele
- Dominant character
- What is allele ?
- Alternate forms of genes
- Heterologous chromosome
- Homologous chromosomes
- Linked genes
- Which of the following is not a nucleotide ?
- Tyrosine
- Cytosine
- Adenine
- guanine
- characteristic feature of DNA replication are
- it is the highly accurate process
- it is template directed
- it requires short RNA primers
- all of the above
- which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of DNA
- helicase
- DNA polymerase
- DNA ligase
- DNA gyrase
- DNA replication occur in
- 3ˈ to 5ˈ direction
- 5ˈ to 5ˈ direction
- 5ˈ to 3ˈ direction
- 3ˈ to 3ˈ direction
- Rate of DNA replication in prokaryotes are approximately
- 10 bases/sec
- 100 bases/sec
- 1000 bases/sec
- 10000 bases/sec
- During DNA replication which of the following mechanism of DNA polymerase enzyme helps in preventing error
- Proof checking
- Proof reading
- Rechecking
- All of these
- Which is the following statement is correct for the polymerase chain reaction
- It is a DNA amplification technique
- It is a DNA sequencing technique
- It is a DNA degradation technique
- All of these
- DNA replication is start when
- The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotide of two-strand breaks
- The leading strand produces Okazaki fragments
- RNA primer are added
- None of these
- Who discovered the Double-Helix structure of DNA
- Matthew meselson
- Franklin stahl
- Darwin
- Watson and Crick
- Who demonstrated that the mode of DNA replication is semiconservative
- Watson and Crick
- Sutton
- Meselson and Stahl
- Khorana
- Which of the following technique used by Meselson and stahl in order to study semiconservative replication in DNA ?
- Density gradient centrifugation
- Centrifugation
- Chromatography
- None of these
- The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis was first proposed by
- Johansen
- Muller
- Bidge
- Archibald Garrod
- Edward Tatum and George Beadle evaluated one gene – one enzyme hypothesis by using
- Neurospora
- Drosophila
- E. coli
- Mus musculus
- Sickle cell anaemia is a disorder that affects
- WBC
- RBC
- Macrophages
- All of the above
- In Sickle cell anaemic patients, the hemoglobin molecule contains a substitution for _____
- Ascorbic acid
- Quinone
- Carboxylic acid
- Glutamic acid
- Which of the following disorder is occur due to the point mutation
- Down’s syndrome
- Night blindness
- Sickle cell anaemia
- Edward syndrome
- On which chromosome gene encoding HCD ( homogentisate 1,2- dioxygenase) is located
- Chromosome 3
- Chromosome 1
- Chromosome 14
- None of these
- Which disease is occur due to mutation in HCD gene ?
- Sickle cell anemia
- Cystic fibrosis
- Alkaptonuria
- None of these
- Which of the following conditions found in alkaptonuria
- Urine turns black
- Homogenetisic acid present in patients urines
- Both a and b
- None of these
- Which of the following enzyme convert Homogenetisic acid into Maleylactoaceticacid ?
- Homogenetisic acid oxidase
- Phenylalanine hydroxylase
- Reductase
- None of the above
- Deficiency of which enzyme is responsible for phenylketonuria ?
- Phenylalanine hydroxylase
- Phosphopentose isomerase
- Dehydrogenase
- None of these
- Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of phenylalanine into tyrosine
- Hyaluronidase
- Ligase
- Phenylalanine hydroxylase
- Reductase
- Which of the following statement is not true
- Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive metabolic genetic disoreder
- Phenylketonuria is caused by the mutation in a gene on chromosome 3
- Phenylketonuria can be destructive to the nervous system
- Phenylketonuria is caused by the mutation in a gene on chromosome 12
- Which enzyme is defective in phenylketonuria ?
- Phenylalanine hydroxylase
- Dihydrobiopterin reductase
- Dihydrobiopterin reductase
- None of these
- Which amino acid is accumulated in phenylaketonuria ?
- Accumulation of phenylalanine
- Accumulation of tyrosine
- Accumulation of glutamate
- All of the above
- Which enzyme help to open up DNA double helix in front of the replication fork ?
- DNA polymerase III
- DNA ligase
- DNA topoisomerase I
- DNA polymerase I
- Coding sequences in split gene called as
- Exons
- Operons
- Cistrons
- Introns
- Which disease is cause by splicing error ?
- Alkaptonuria
- Cystic fibrosis
- Beta-thalassemia
- None of these
- Who discovered split gene ?
- Richard J. Roberts
- Philip A. Sharp
- Both a and b
- None of these
- Which DNA element can switch there position ?
- Cistrons
- Exons
- Introns
- Transposons
- Which type of genetic material present in prokaryotes ?
- Circular DNA with histones
- Linear DNA with histones
- Circular DNA without histones
- Linear DNA without histones
- In eukaryotes DNA is mainly found in
- Nucleolus
- Nucleus
- Cytoplasm
- None of these
- How many origin of replication found in E. coli ?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- Which strand is synthesized continuously during DNA replication ?
- Leading strand
- Lagging strand
- Both a and b
- None of these
- In which type of gene there expressible nucleotide sequence partially overlaps with the expressible nucleotide sequence of another gene ?
- Split gene
- Overlapping gene
- Jumping gene
- None of these
- In which year Barbara McClintock got Nobel prize ?
- 1981
- 1982
- 1983
- 1984
- Which of the following enzyme does not participate in DNA replication ?
- Helicase
- RNA primer
- DNA polymerase I
- DNA polymerase III
- the term gene introduced by
- Johansen
- Stahl
- Meselson
- None of these
- The gene concept introduced by
- Sutton
- Watson
- Crick
- Barbara
- Split gene are also called as
- Overlapping gene
- Interrupted gene
- Inhibitory gene
- Lethal gene
- Gene as a unit of transmission is called as
- Muton
- Cistron
- Recon
- None of these
- Gene as a unit of mutation is called as
- Muton
- Recon
- Cistron
- Intron
- Which of the following are symptoms of ataxia
- Loss of balance and co-ordination in hands, arms and legs
- Difficulty in walking
- Difficulty swallowing
- All of these
- What is ataxia
- Poor digestion
- Poor respiration
- Poor coordination of movement
- Poor circulation
- In which pattern Friedreich ataxia is inherited
- Autosomal recessive pattern
- Autosomal dominant pattern
- X linked pattern
- Y linked pattern
- Spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 is inherited in an
- Autosomal recessive pattern
- Autosomal dominant pattern
- X linked pattern
- Y linked pattern
- What is the role of DNA polymerase I in DNA replication ?
- Remove the RNA primer and fills in with DNA
- Breaks hydrogen bond between DNA strands
- Covalently link Okazaki fragments
- None of these
- Which of the following statement is true about transposable element ?
- It is also called as overlapping genes
- It is also called as jumping genes
- It is also called as inhibitory gene
- It is also called as split gene
- Intron is also called as
- Non-coding DNA
- Junk DNA
- Both a and b
- None of these
- What is Cistron ?
- Unit of function
- Gene
- Both a and b
- None of these
- Which of the following enzyme does not play key role in DNA replication ?
- Helicase
- RNA polymerase
- Primase
- Topoisomerase
- In which type of cell DNA serves as Genetic material ?
- Prokaryotes
- Eukaryotes
- Both a and b
- None of these
- In split genes, the non-coding sequences are called as
- Cistron
- Exons
- Operons
- Introns
- DNA replication is
- Conservative
- Non-Conservative
- Semi-conservative
- None of the mentioned
- Which of the following reaction is catalyzed by DNA ligase enzyme in DNA replication?
- Addition of new nucleotides to the lagging strands
- Addition of new nucleotides to leading strands
- Formation of Phosphodiester bond between the 3ˈ-OH of one Okazaki fragment and the 5ˈ-Phosphate of the next on lagging strand
- None of the mentioned
- Which activity of DNA polymerase III is required for proofreading during DNA replication ?
- 5ˈ to 3ˈ exonuclease activity
- 3ˈ to 5ˈ exonuclease activity
- 3ˈ to 5ˈ endonuclease activity
- 5ˈ to 3ˈ endonuclease activity
- Which of the following enzyme is not found in E. coli replication fork.
- Primase
- DnaA
- PCNA
- Single stranded DNA binding protein
- In a temperature sensitive mutant bacteria, at non-permissive temperature, there are lots of Okazaki fragments are accumulated during DNA replication. The bacteria is mutant for
- DNA polymerase I
- DNA topoisomerase I
- DNA gyrase
- DNA ligase
- In human genome, how much DNA code for protein ?
- 10 %
- 2 %
- 40 %
- 30 %
- Which of the following enzyme induces double strand breaks in DNA and rejoins them ?
- Restriction endonuclease
- DNA ligase
- DNA gyrase/ Topoisomerase
- DNA polymerase
- Which of the following enzyme does not required primer for its activity ?
- RNA dependent DNA polymerase
- DNA dependent DNA polymerase
- DNA dependent RNA polymerase
- Taq DNA polymerase
- Which of the following enzyme is not the present at replication fork ?
- Ligase
- Primase
- Helicase
- DNA polymerase
- What will happened when we inhibit the activity of primase at the replication fork that is already advancing ?
- The Okazaki fragments would get longer
- The DNA helicase would stop advancing
- The leading strand would stop being synthesized
- The lagging strand would stop being synthesized
- Regarding to prokaryotic DNA replication which of the following statement is wrong?
- The pre-priming stage is the regulated step
- DNA polymerase III synthesized only lagging strand
- DNA is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction
- Gyrase unwinds the DNA in front of the replication fork
- Which of the following statement described the correct enzymatic activities of DNA polymerase?
- The polymerase synthesized DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
- The RNA primer nucleotides are removed by the 5’ to 3’ exonuclease
- The 3’ to 5’ exonuclease extends the 3’ end of the parent strand
- The 3’ to 5’ exonuclease replaces the RNA primer with deoxynucleotides
- Which of the following enzyme act first during the prokaryotic DNA replication ?
- Helicase
- Primase
- DNA polymerase III
- DNA ligase
- Which strand are present in newly synthesized DNA ?
- Both new strand
- Both old strand
- One new and one old strand
- Only new strand
- What is the function of gyrase ?
- At the origin separates DNA strands
- Avoid the binding of two single strand of DNA
- After replication is complete it help in recoiling of DNA
- It breaks and rejoins the DNA backbone to remove tension produced by helicase
- In which type of genes coding region are partially overlapped ?
- Inhibitory gene
- Lethal gene
- Overlapping gene
- None of these
- How many promoter are present in operon ?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- Which of the following statement in correct about operon
- They are polycistronic
- It contain cluster of genes
- It is stretch of DNA that is transcribed to create a continuous segment of RNA
- All of these
- Pick the odd from the following option
- Transposon
- Introns
- Jumping genes
- Insertion sequences
- What is the function of hemoglobin ?
- Oxygen storage
- Oxygen transport
- Both of the above
- None of these
- In which cell hemoglobin is present ?
- R.B.C.
- W.B.C.
- Platelets
- None of these
- Which of the disease is occur due to the mutation in hemoglobin structure
- Alkaptonuria
- Sickle cell anemia
- Phenylketonuria
- None of these
- What section of DNA codes the protein ?
- Chromosome
- Gene
- plasmid
- None of these
- MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Answers:
1.(a) Escherichia coli, 2. (b) DNA Ligase, 3. (a) CAG 4. (c) Helicase5. (b) Recon 6. (d) Barbara McClintock 7. (a) Maiz plant8. (d) Short stretches of DNA attached to RNA primers on lagging strands 9. (b) Conservative replication 10. (c)Jumping genes 11. (a) DNA Polymerase I 12.(d) Topoisomerases 13. (a) S Phase14. (a) keeps the parental strands apart 15. (d) DNA polymerase III16. (b) Recon 17. (a) Muton 18. (c) Cumulative genes 19. (a) Pleiotropic genes20. (d) Modifying genes21. (a) Inhibitory genes22. (b)Mendel 23. (c) Allele 24. (a)Alternate forms of gene 25. (a) Tyrosine 26. (d) All of these 27. (b) DNA polymerase 28. (c) 5ˈ to 3ˈ direction 29. (c) 1000 bases/ sec 30. (b) Proof reading 31. (a) it id DNA amplification technique 32. (a) the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotide of two-strands breaks 33. (d) Watson and Crick 34. (c) Meselson and Stahl 35. (a) Density gradient centrifugation technique 36.(d) Archibald Garrod 37.(a) Neurospora 38. (b) RBC 39. (d) Glutamic acid 40. (c) Sickle cell anemia 41. (a) Chromosome 3 42. (c) Alkaptonuria 43. (c) Both a and B 44. (a) Homogenetisic acid oxidase 45. (a) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 46. (c) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 47. (b) Phenylketonuria is caused by the mutation in gene on chromosome 3 48. (a) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 49.(a) accumulation of Phenylalanine 50. (c)DNA topoisomerase I 51. (a) Exon 52. (c) Beta- Thalassemia53.(c) Both a and b 54. (d) Transposons 55. (d) Linear DNA without histones56. (b) Nucleus 57. (a) 1 58. (a) Leading strand 59. (b) Overlapping genes 60. (c) 1983 61. (b) RNA Primer 62. (a) Johansen 63. (a) Sutton 64. (b) interrupted gene 65. (b) Cistron 66. (a) Muton 67. (d) all of these 68. (c) poor coordination of movement 69. (a) autosomal recessive pattern 70. (b) autosomal dominant pattern 71. (a) Remove the RNA primer and fills in with DNA 72. (b) It is also called as jumping genes 73. (c) Both a and b 74. (c) Both a and b 75. (b) RNA polymerase 76. (c) Both a and b 77. (d) Introns 78. (c) Semi-conservative 79. (c) Formation of Phosphodiester bond between the 3ˈ-OH of one Okazaki fragment and the 5ˈ-Phosphate of the next on lagging strand 80. (b) 3ˈ to 5ˈ exonuclease activity 81. (c) PCNA 82. (d) DNA ligase 83. (b) 2 % 84. (c)DNA gyrase/ Topoisomerase 85. (c)DNA dependent RNA polymerase 86. (1) Ligase 87. (d) The lagging strand would stop being synthesized 88. (b)DNA polymerase III synthesized only lagging strand,; 89. (b)The RNA primer nucleotides are removed by the 5’ to 3’ exonuclease90.(a) Helicase91. (c) One new and one old strand 92. (d) It breaks and rejoins the DNA backbone to remove tension produced by helicase 93. (c) Overlapping gene. 94. (a) 1 95. (d) All of these 96. (b) Introns 97. (b) Oxygen transport 98. (a) R.B.C.99. (b) Sickle cell anemia 100.(b) gene
- Fill in the Blank
- When the material in the two parental strands is distributed more or less randomly between two daughter molecule is called as __________ replication.
- _________ separates the DNA into two template strands.
- The _________ strands needs only one primer.
- The enzyme ________ joins the Okazaki fragments together to form a continuous strand.
- _________ breaks the hydrogen bonds between DNA strands.
- DNA replication is begins at specific location called as _____________.
- The primer allows __________ to bind and start replication.
- ________ strand is replicated in a fragments.
- ________ strand is replicated in continuous manner in the same direction as the replication fork.
- A ________ is the molecular unit of heredity of a living organism.
- Each gene occupies specific position called _________.
- Several alternate form of gene called as ________.
- ________ is the part of DNA specifying a single polypeptide chain.
- Cistron can have _______ nucleotide pairs.
- ________ genes bring about the death of their possessor.
- The short strand of _______ primer is required for the replication of DNA molecule.
- The β – globin gene is found on chromosome _______ .
- A gene is the molecular unit of _________ of a leaving organism.
- The influence of gene resulting in the expression of a genetic character is called _________ .
- People with __________ have urine that turns black when it is exposed to air.
- Alkaptonuria is one of a rare ________ recessive genetic disorder.
- The homogentisic acid oxidase is involved in the metabolism of the tyrosine and _________.
- Phenylketonuria is caused by a mutation in a gene on chromosome _______ .
- Phenylketonuria is _________ recessive metabolic genetic disorder.
- _________ enzyme is necessary to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine to the amino acid tyrosine.
- Alkaptonuria is characterized by the excretion of __________ in the urine.
- In alkaptonuria urine is dark due to the oxidation of __________ in air.
- The DNA sequence in the exon provides instructions for _________ protein.
- _________ are a pair of adjacent genes whose coding region are partially overlapping.
- ________ are the strands of DNA that move or copy themselves and jump to new location.
Answers
( B. Fill the Blanks)
- Dispersive 2. Helicase 3. Leading4. DNA Ligase 5. DNA Helicase6. Origin of replication7. DNA polymerase III 8. Lagging 9. Leading 10. Gene11. Locus 12. Alleles 13. Cistron 14.100 to 30,000 15.Lethal16. RNA17. 11 18. Heredity 19. Gene action20. Alkaptonuria21. Autosomal22. Phenylalanine23. 12 24. Autosomal 25. Phenylalanine hydroxylase26. Homogentisic acid 27. Homogentisic acid28. Coding 29. Overlapping genes30. Jumping genes
- True and false
- Replication is the process by which a double- stranded DNA molecule is copied to produce two identical DNA molecule.
- Replication can only occur in a 3ˈ 5ˈ direction.
- Leading strand of DNA synthesized in the form of Fragments.
- Helicase uncoils the DNA.
- Phenylketonuria is caused by a mutationin a gene on chromosome 13.
- The DNA sequence in the exon provides instructions for coding protein.
- Genes can not be transmitted from parentto offspring.
- DNA replication is start when hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break.
- Spinocerebeller ataxia is not a neurodegenerative disease.
- Carriers of sickle cell anaemia are protected from malaria because plasmodium cannot grow in distorted RBCs.
- DNA polymerase III remove the RNA primers and fills in with DNA.
- Primase covalently links the Okazaki fragments together.
- A recon consists of not more than two pairs of nucleotides.
- Inhibitory genes suppresses the expression of another gene.
- The DNA synthesis is semi-conservative with continuous leading strand and discontinuous lagging strand.
- Synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerase occurs in the 5ˈ to 3ˈ direction.
- Semiconservative DNA replication first demonstrated in Drosophila melanogaster.
- Sickle – shaped red blood cells don’t move easily through blood vessels.
- People with alkaptonuria can properly metabolize phenylalanine and tyrosine.
- Jumping genes are the strands of DNA that move or copy themselves and jump to new location.
Answers
(C. true and false)
- True 2) False 3) False 4) True 5) False 6) True 7) False 8) True 9) False 10) True 11) False 12) False 13) True 14) True 15) True 16) True 17) False 18)True 19) False 20) True
D. One answer questions
1. What is DNA replication ?
2. Which enzyme breaks Hydrogen bonds between DNA strands?
3. What is the function of topoisomerase enzyme?
4. Which enzyme keeps the parental strand apart ?
5. Which enzyme synthesize RNA primer ?
6. What is the function of DNA ligase?
7. Which enzyme covalently links the Okazaki fragments together ?
8. Which enzyme uncoils DNA ?
9. What is the name of tiny fragments made on the lagging strands ?
Ans: tiny fragments made on the lagging strands called as Okazaki fragments.
10. What is template ?
Ans: Each of the separated parental strands of DNA is called as template.
11.what is lagging strand ?
12. What is leading strand ?
13. Which enzyme remove the RNA primers ?
14. What is full form of PCR ?
15. Define cistron ?
16. Define recon ?
17. Define muton ?
18. Who first proposed the one gene - one enzyme hypothesis ?
19. Who evaluated Garrod's hypothesis using the fungus Neurospora ?
20. Which cell are affected in sickle cell anemia ?
21. What is lethal gene ?
22. What is multiple gene ?
23. What is cumulative gene ?
24. What is pleiotropic gene ?
25. What is the function of modifying gene ?
26. What is the function of inhibitory gene ?
27. In which disease urin turn black?
28. Mutation on which gene result in alkaptonuria ?
29. Mutation on which gene result in phenylketonuria ?
30. What is the function of phenylalanine hydroxylase ?
31. Inwhich disease homogentisic acid accumulate in body ?
32. In which disease phynylalanine build up in blood ?
33. Define the split gene ?
34. Who discovered split gene ?
35. What are the exons ?
36. Which disease is occur due to splicing error ?
37. What is overlapping gene ?
38. What is transposable element ?
39. Who discovered the transposable element ?
40. Which tri nucleotide is repeat in spinocerebral ataxia 1 ?
41. Inwhich pattern spinocerebral ataxia inhereted ?
42. Inwhich organism semi conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated ?
43. Who introduced classical concept of gene ?
44. Where DNA is located in eukaryotes ?
45. Who discovered Molecular structure of DNA ?
46. Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction?
47. What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix?
48. Why does a DNA strand only grow in 5'to 3' direction ?
Ans : Because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing molecule
49. What is the direction of DNA replication ?
50. What is the full form of DNA ?
- Answer of one sentence
- The process of making an identical copy of DNA, using existing DNA as a templates for the synthesis of new DNA strand is called as DNA replication.
- DNA helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between DNA strands.
- Topoisomerase loose the supercoiling ahead of the replication fork.
- Single stranded binding protein keeps the parental strand apart.
- RNA primer is synthesized by primase enzyme.
- DNA ligase covalently links the Okazaki fragments together.
- DNA ligase covalently links the Okazaki fragments.
- Helicase enzyme uncoils DNA.
- Okazaki fragments.
- A template strand is strand used by DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase to attach complementary bases during DNA replication or RNA transcription, respectively.
- The strand that is made in short segments is known as lagging strand.
- The strand of DNA that is continuously made is known as leading strand.
- DNA Polymerase I remove RNA primer.
- Full form of PCR is polymerase chain reaction.
- Cistron is part of DNA specifying a single polypeptide chain that transmit characters from one generation to other as a unit of transmission.
- Recon is the smallest segment of DNA capable of being separated and exchange with other chromosome.
- Mutan is the smallest unit of genetic material which when changed or mutated produces a phenotypic trait.
- The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis was first proposed by the English physician Archibald Garrod in 1909.
- American geneticists Edward Tatum and George Beadle evaluated Garrod’s hypothesis using fungus Neurospora.
- Red blood cell are affected in sickle cell anemia.
- The genes which bring about the death of their possessor called as Lethal gene.
- When two or more pairs of independent genes act together to produce a single phenotypic trait, these genes are called as multiple genes.
- Some genes have additive effects on the action of other genes, these are called as cumulative genes.
- The genes which produce changes in more than one character is called pleiotropic gene.
- Modifying gene influences or alters the expression of other genes.
- An inhibitory gene suppresses or inhibits the expression of another gene.
- In Alkaptouriaurin turns black when it is exposedto air.
- Mutation in gene encoding the HCD ( Homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase) enzyme result in Alkaptonuria.
- Mutation in gene encoding phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme result in phenylketonuria.
- Pheylalanine hydroxylase enzyme breaks down the amino acid phenylalnine into tyrosine.
- In Alkaptonuria ,homogenetisic acid is accumulate in body.
- In Phenylketonuria, phenylalanine is build up in blood.
- The split gene is agene that contains sections of DNA called exons, which are expressed as RNA and protein, interrupted by section of DNA called introns, which are not expressed.
- Split gene were independently discovered by Richard J. Roberts and Phillip A. Sharp in 1977.
- Exons are the DNA sequences which provide instructions for coding protein.
- Beta-Thalassemia is a one of the disease caused due to splicing error.
- Overlapping genes are defined as a pair of adjacent genes whose coding regions are partially overlapping.
- Transposable element is a DNA sequences that can change its position within in genome, sometimes creating or reversing mutation and altering the cell’s genome size.
- Barbara McClintock discovered the transposable element.
- CAG tri-nucleotide is repeat in spinocerbral ataxia.
- In autosomal dominant pattern spinocerbral ataxia inherited.
- Semi-conservative replication of DNA is first demonstrated in E. coli .
- Classical concept of gene was introduced by Sutton (1902) .
- DNA is located in nucleus in eukaryotes.
- Watson and Crick discovered the molecular structure of DNA.
- DNA polymerase catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand in the5’ to 3’ direction.
- Hydrogen bond are found between paired bases of the DNA double helix.
- DNA strand only grow in 5'to 3' direction because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing molecule.
- DNA replication is only occur in 5’ to 3’ direction.
- Full form of DNA is 2, deoxiriboucleic acid.
- Terminology
- DNA replication : the process of making an identical copy of DNA, using existing DNA as a templates for the synthesis of new DNA strand is called as DNA replication.
- Gene : gene is a locatable region of genomic sequence, corresponding to a unit of inheritance, which is associated with regulatory regions, transcribed regions, and or other functional sequence regions.
- Overlapping gene : overlapping genes are defined as a pair of adjacent genes whose coding region are partially overlapping.
- Split gene : The split gene is a gene that contains sections of DNA called exons which are expressed as RNA and protein interrupted by sections of DNA called introns, which are not expressed.
- Eukaryotes : Eukaryotes are organism whose cells have a nucleus enclosed within a nuclear envelope.
- Prokaryotes : it is refers to any of the group of organisms primarily characterized by the lack of true nucleus and other membrane-bound cell compartments.
- Template strand : A template strand is the term that refers to the strand used by DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase to attach complementary bases during DNA replication or RNA transcription, respectively
- Allele :An allele is one of two or more versions of the same gene at the same place on chromosomes.
- Enzymes : it is substance that acts as a catalyst in living organisms to bring about a specific chemical reaction.
- Minimal medium : In microbiology, minimal medium is medium that has just enough ingredients to support growth of microorganism.
- Phenotype :it is the set of observable characteristics of an organism.
- Protein :proteins are a naturally occurring, extremely complex substance. It consists of amino acid residues joined by peptide bonds.
- Antigen : it is a foreign substance which induces an immune response in the body.
- Antibody : it is a protein produced by the body’s immune system when it detects antigens.
- Anaemia : it is a condition in which the blood doesn’t have enough healthy red blood cells.
- Polypeptide : it is a linear organic polymer consisting of a large number of amino-acid residues bonded together in a chain and forming a protein molecule.
- Mutation : Sudden genetic changes in DNA.
- Point mutation : it is a type of mutation that describe a change in single nucleotide of DNA.
- Hydrophilic amino acid : this are a type of amino acid with polar nature and they can dissolve in water.
- Hydrophobic amino acids : Hydrophobic amino acids are those with side chains that do not like to reside in an aqueous ( i.e. Water ) environment.
- Disorder :An illness that disrupts normal physical or mental functions.
- Hormones : it is chemical substance that act like messenger molecules in the body.
- Neurotransmitters :Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmits a signal from a neuron across the synapse to a target cell, which can be a different neuron, muscle cell or gland cells.
- Neurons : neurons are the fundamental units of the brain and nervous system.
- Recessive gene : genes responsible for the expression of recessive character are called as recessive gene.
- Dominant gene : genes responsible for the expression of the dominant character are called as dominant gene.
- Operon : it is the functioning unit of DNA containing a cluster of genes under the control of a single promoter
- Nucleotide : Nucleotide are organic molecules consisting of a nucleoside and a phosphate.
- Virus : viruses are non-cellular microscopic infectious agents that can only replicate inside the host cells.
- Autosomal recessive disorders : An autosomal recessive disorder means two copies of an abnormal gene must be present in order for the disease or trait to develop.
UNIT–III
Genetic code
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
- Multiple Choice Questions
- The DNA molecule is coded for
- Maintenance of the cell
- Reproduction of the cell
- Both a and b
- None of the above
- The Nucleotide sequence in DNA is coded for synthesis of different proteins which control
a) Cell regulation
b) Cell Growth
c) Cell division
d) All of the above
- The information deposited on nucleotide sequence of DNA is to synthesize protein this process is known as
- Protein Synthesis
- Central Dogma
- Both a and b
- None of the above
- The steps that involved in Central Dogma of Protein synthesis are
a) DNA Transcription mRNA Translation Protein
b) DNA Transcription rRNA Translation Protein
c) DNA Transcription tRNA Translation Protein
d) DNA Transcription siRNA Translation Protein
- During Protein synthesis information coded on the nucleotide sequence of DNA is transcribed to
- mRNA
- rRNA
- tRNA
- None of the above
- mRNA is translated to form a sequence of Amino acid which is called as
- Nucleotide sequence
- Nucleoside sequence
- Polypeptide chain
- All of the above
- The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA or RNA, which determines the amino acid sequence in protein, is known as___________.
a) Universal Code
b) Genetic Code
c) Initiation Codon
d)Stop Codon
- mRNA codes a specific amino acid with three adjacent nitrogenous bases, is called as__________ Codon.
a) Singlet
b) Triplet
c) Doublet
d) Quadrate
- Total number of naturally occurring amino acids are______________.
a) 155
b) 250
c) 158
d) 150
- Out of 64 triplet codons 61 coded 20 Amino acids while 3 are__________.
- Termination codon
- Stop codon
- Initiation codon
- Both a and b
- The Inventor of the term Genetic code is____________________.
- George Gamow
- Gregor Gamow
- Karl Landsteiner
- Nirenberg
- The stop codon is/are as listed below.
- UAA
- UAG
- UGA
- All of the above.
- The adjacent codon in genetic code does not overlap, as it is _______________.
a) Non-overlapping
b) Overlapping
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- Genetic code always indicates, which features listed below?
- Triplet, Non-overlapping and Comma less
- Polarity and degeneracy
- Ambiguous and Colinearity
- All of the above
- The fixed stop codon in other organism which exceptionally code for tryptophan in mitochondria is?
a) UGA
b) UAA
c) UAG
d) AUG
- Exception to other organisms AUA in mitochondrial mRNA is not coded for _______________ but codes for __________________.
a) Isoleucine, Methionine
b) Methionine, Isoleucine
c) Leucine, Threonine
d) Threonine, Lysine
- The Ambiguous nature of Genetic code is mean by_________________________.
- More than one amino acids coded by similar triplet codon.
- One specific amino acid is coded by more than one triplet codon.
- Different amino acids coded by different triplet codon.
- None of the above
- In the sensitive E. coli strain streptomycin UUU codes for phenylalanine like normally it does but if streptomycin treated with ribosome, then UUU may also code for
- Isoleucine, Leucine or Serine
- Methionine, Threonine or Valine
- Asparagine, Glutamine or Glycine
- Histidine, Cysteine or Alanine
- The genetic code degenerates at _______________.
a) First position
b) Second position
c) Third position
d) Never degenerate
- The amino acids each of which coded by four triplet codons are_______________
- Isoleucine, tryptophan and methionine
- Alanine, Glycine and Threonine
- Valine, Proline and Alanine
- Both b and c
- Which factor bear a resemblance to Guanine and present at wobble position in the anticodon of certain tRNA’s?
a) Inisine
b) Inosine
c) Inositol
d) Insoles
- Post transcription the first triplet code of mRNA is translated to polypeptide chain at first position is known as
- Start codon
- Initiation codon
- Nonsense codons
- All of the above
- The most common start codon in prokaryotes and eukaryotes is__________.
a) UUG
b) CUG
c) AUG
d) GAU
- In prokaryotes the first triplet code of the protein is AUG which codes amino acid______________________.
a) N-formyl methionine
b) Methionine
c) Valine
d) None of the above
- Artificial mRNA for the first time synthesized by__________________.
a) Watson and Crick
b) George Gamow
c) Nirenberg and Matthaei
d) All of the above
- Proteins play vital role in cell metabolism because it ____________
a) Make constitutional material of the cell
b) Takes part in metabolic reactions as an enzyme
c) Regulate gene expression and phenotypic trait
d) All of the above
- In polypeptide chain the adjacent amino acids form covalent peptide bond in between _____________________.
a) Carboxyl groups of both amino acids
b) Amino groups of both amino acids
c) Carboxyl group of one and amino group of other amino acid
d) None of the above
- Protein synthesis required 5 Enzymes like___________________
a) Amino acid activating enzymes
b) Peptide polymerase
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- Activated precursors that required for transcription are___________
a) ATP and CTP
b) GTP and ATP
c) UTP and CTP
d) All of the above
- RNA polymerase enzyme is made up by the complex of 6 subunits like
a) Two α, one β, one β’, one ω and a σ factor
b) Two α, two β, one β’ and one ω
c) One α, one β, two β’, one ω and a σ factor
d) Two α, two β, one ω and two σ factor
- The function of β and β’ subunit of RNA polymerase is to ____________
a) Form catalytic center for RNA polymerase
b) Help in unwinding of DNA double helix
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- The function of σ subunit of RNA polymerase enzyme is to __________
a) Spot promoter site and help in binding of holoenzyme on this initiation site
b) Identify initiation site and direct RNA polymerase bind on it
c) Recognize promoter site and guide RNA polymerase bind to this site
d) All of the above
- Prior diffuse to binding site RNA polymerase first binds to_____________
a) RNA polymerase recognition site
b) Promoter site spotted by its σ subunit
c) Initiation site recognized by σ subunit
d) All of the above
- The distance in between Initiation site on which RNA polymerase binds first and binding site for transcription is
a) One or two bases long
b) More than two bases long
c) Four bases long
d) None of the above
- When RNA polymerase (holoenzyme) binds to DNA for initiation of transcription it results in___________
a) Unwinding of DNA at any place and large segment of DNA double helix opens up
b) Local unwinding of double helix and small segment of DNA double helix opens up
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- The series of events in the initiation of transcription is_______________
i) σ factor and core enzyme join to form RNA polymerase
ii) RNApolymerase attaches to initiation site.
iii) σ factor recognizes start signal and lead RNA polymerase to bind it
iv) Small segment of DNA unwinds
v) σ factor dissociates from core enzyme.
a) i-ii-iii-iv-v
b) i-iv-v-iii-ii
c) i-iii-ii-iv-v
d) i-v-iv-ii-iii
- Synthesis of complementary mRNA from DNA sense strand is known as_____________________
a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Mutation
d) Deletion
- During transcription the first base of mRNA is always_____________
a) Pyrimidine
b) Purine
c) Either purine or Pyrimidine
d) None of the above
- mRNA elongation occurs with accumulation of activated ___________________
a) Ribonucleoside triphosphate
b) Ribonucleotide triphosphate
c) Ribonucleoside bisphosphate
d) Ribonucleotide monophosphate
- Synthesis of complementary RNA from RNA template in many Viruses is catalyzed by
a) Synthetase
b) RNA Polymerase
c) Replicase
d) DNA polymerase
- The discovery of the mechanism of reverse transcription was done by______
a) Temin
b) Mizutani
c) Baltimore
d) All of the above
- The enzyme that catalyze the reaction of reverse transcription to transcribe DNA from RNA template is
a) Replicase
b) Reverse transcriptase
c) RNA polymerase
d) DNA polymerase
- The RNA viruses that can transcribe DNA from RNA template are__________
a) Rous sarcoma virus
b) Rauscher mouse leukemia virus
c) RNA tumor viruses
d) All of the above
- The right sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of reverse transcription is _
I) Enzyme reverse Transcriptase, viral RNA chromosome and viral Proteins enters the host cell
II) RNA virus or RNA retrovirus infect host cell
III) Enzyme reverse transcriptase synthesize DNA strand complementary to viral chromosome, which is RNA/DNA hybrid
IV)dsDNA inserted into the host chromosome.
V) The transcribed free DNA template strand used to synthesize DNA double helix
VI) Reverse transcriptase degrades RNA strand from RNA/DNA hybrid
a) I- II – III – IV – V - VI
b) III – II – I – IV – V - VI
c) II – I – III – VI - V – IV
d) II – III – I – IV – V - VI
- In eukaryotes hnRNA’s are larger than mature cytoplasmic mRNA by about_______
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 10%
- The looping mechanism while processing hnRNA is____________________
a) To detect the exons and introns in hnRNA strand
b) To detect coding and noncoding region of hnRNA strand
c) To determine coded and noncoded region of the hnRNA sequence
d) All of the above
- The removal of unnecessary segment and combining the necessary segment from hnRNA is ________________
a) Capping
b) Looping
c) Splicing
d) Methylation
- In addition to Polyadenylation the pre mRNA processing steps are
a) Capping
b) Methylation
c) Splicing
d) all of the above
- The Polyadenylation is the process of addition of _______________
a) Adenylate residue at the 3’ end
b) Adenylate residue at the 5’ OH end
c) Adenylate residue at the 5’ end
d) None of the above
- In the process of Polyadenylation adenylate residues added on 3’ end because___
a) Polyadenylation signal situated near 3’ end of eukaryote gene, this signal transcribe to a recognition sequence during transcription
b) Polyadenylation signal is recognized by a specific endonuclease and cleaves the mRNA chain 11-30 nucleotide downstream at 3’ to the recognition sequence
c)The cut on recognition pre mRNA sequence by specific endonuclease creates 3’OH end wherePoly (A) tail is added by the action of poly (A) polymerase enzyme
d) All of the above
- The process of capping is__________________________________________________
a) The formation of cap at 5’ end by guanylate residue condensation
b)Cap formation at 3’ end by guanylate residue condensation
c) The formation of cap at 7’ end by guanylate residue condensation
d) The formation of cap at 5’ end by adenylate residue condensation
- Addition of methyl groups at the 5’ end of mRNA to some adenylate residue is_____
a) Ethylation
b) Adenylation
c) Methylation
d) Acetylation
- The series of events during translation of mRNA to protein is____________________
I) Amino acid activation
II) Amino acid transfer to tRNA
III) Initiation of the polypeptide chain synthesis
IV) Elongation of the polypeptide chain
V) Termination of the polypeptide chain synthesis
a) V – IV – III – II - I
b) I – II – III – IV - V
c) III – II – IV – V - I
d) IV – V – III – II – I
- The functions of Hsp70 are to
a) Import protein into the mitochondria
b) Help protein folding
c) Take part in protein disaggregation and degradation in the mitochondrial matrix.
d) All of the above
- Hsp stands for____________________________________
a) Horse power
b) Histidine series protein
c) Heat shock proteins
d) None of the above
- During translation every single amino acid is catalyzed by its definite activating enzyme is_____________
a) Acetoacyl tRNA synthase
b) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
c) Acetyl transeferase
d) Methyl isomerase
- In following reaction at the place of ‘?’ mark which compound is present
AA + ATP + Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
Activating enzyme
? + IP
a) Acetoacyl tRNA synthase
b) Acetyl transeferase
c) Aminoacyl adenylate synthetase
d) Methyl isomerase
- During translation each activated amino acids transferred to its specific tRNA, it leads to formation of
a) Covalent peptide bond in between amino acid and tRNA
b) Both a and c
c) High energy ester bond in between amino acid and tRNA
d) None of the above
- Post transfer activated amino acid and tRNA forms bond in between
a) Carboxyl group of amino acid and 3’ hydroxyl group of tRNA
b) Hydroxyl group of amino acid and carboxyl group of tRNA
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- In prokaryotes the initiation factors required during translation of mRNA to protein are______________________
a) IF 1 and IF 3
b) IF 1, IF2 and IF 3
c) IF 1 and IF 2
d) IF 2 and IF 3
- The process of binding of the ribosomal subunit to the initiation sequence of mRNA is require _______
a) IF1
b) IF2
c) IF3
d) None of the above
- The initiation codons in mRNA are___________
a) AUG
b) GUG
c) UUG
d) All of the above
- Elongation of the polypeptide chain during translation require the________________
a) Initiation Factors
b) Elongation Factors
c) Termination factor
d) Start signal
- In prokaryotes during initiation, the70S ribosome is formed due to the combination of ________________________
a) 50S and 30S
b) 40S and 30S
c) 60S and 20S
d) 70S and 80S
- The function of Elongation factor EF- G is________________________________
a) Transcription of mRNA
b) Initiation of mRNA
c) Translocation of the mRNA
d) Transcription of DNA
- Elongation factors EF-Tu and EF-Ts plays important role in_________________
a) Elongation of polypeptide chain during translation
b) Binding of Aminoacyl tRNA to the ribosome
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- The steps involved in the process of elongation during translation are____________
a) Binding of AA tRNA at A site
b) Peptide bond formation
c) Translocation
d) All of the above
- Which RNA brings amino acids to add in polypeptide chain_________________
a) tRNA
b) mRNA
c) SnRNa
d) rRNA
- Two binding sites on large subunit of ribosome for the attachment of tRNA are
a) Q site
b) P site
c) A site
d) Both b and c
- In translation the process of translocation include_________________________
a) Simultaneous movement of tRNA and mRNA on the ribosome from codon to codon
b) Movement of only mRNA along the ribosome
c) Movement of only tRNA along the ribosome
d) None of the above
- During translocation the ribosome travels through mRNA strand from___________
a) Initiation site to termination codon of mRNA
b) 5’ end to 3’ end of mRNA
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- Elongation factor IF-G also called______________
a) IF-Ts
b) Translocase
c) EF-Ts
d) EF-Tu
- The elongation factor Translocase also abbreviated as_______________
a) EF-Ts
b) IF-Ts
c) EF-G
d) EF-Tr
- The deacylated tRNA relievefrom P site of ribosome and moves to_________
a) E site
b) F site
c) A site
d) All of the above
- Continuous process of chain elongation during translation terminate at__________
a)Termination codon of mRNA
b)Elongation factor
c) E site
d) None of the above
- In case of prokaryote,during translation of protein chain termination after the signal of release factors_________________
a) RF-1
b) RF-2
c) RF-3
d) All of the above
- When release factors intermingle with enzyme Peptidyl transeferase, it cause________
a) Hydrolysis of polypeptide chain at the P site of ribosome
b)Hydrolysis of polypeptide chain at the A site of ribosome
c)Hydrolysis of polypeptide chain at both A and P site of ribosome
d)Hydrolysis of polypeptide chain neither at P nor at Asite of ribosome
- The termination process of translation finally leads to_________________________
a) The detachment of polypeptide chain and tRNA.
b) The separation of release factor from the ribosome
c) The ribosome dissociation into 50S and 30S subunits.
d) All of the above
- Post translation the manufactured linear chain of amino acid need to _________________
a) Fold
b) Undergo biochemical modifications
c) Become biologically active for proper functioning
d) All of the above
- Due to process of protein folding, the Primary structure of polypeptide chain will undergo_______________
a) 3D secondary
b) 3D tertiary structure
c) Both a and b simultaneously
d) Neither a nor b
- The cell organelle in which protein folding takes place is_________________
a) Ribosome
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Golgi complex
d) Nucleus
- The primary polypeptide chain assume secondary structure by forming bonds and interactions like_______________________
a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Electrostatic interactions
c) Disulfide bonds
d) All of the above
- The heat shock proteins first discovered by______________________________
a) Ferruccio Ritossa
b) Nirenberg
c) H. G. Khorana
d) Temin and Mizutani
- The Heat shock proteins for the first time found in _________________________
a) Apis indica
b) Americana periplanata
c) Drosophila
d) Anopheles
- After protein folding the protein will undergo biochemicalmodification to _________
a) Attain its functional form
b) Degrade
c) Inactivate
d) None of the above
- The biochemical modifications occur in protein to attain its active functional role are_
a) Proteolytic cleavage
b) Amino acid modification
c) Attachment of carbohydrate and addition of Prosthetic groups
d) All of the above
- In prokaryotes the Proteolytic cleavage is a biochemical modification of protein takes place by the removal of _________________________
a) N- formyl methionine from N-terminus of polypeptide chain
b) Methionine from N-terminus of polypeptide chain
c) Threonine from N-terminus of polypeptide chain
d) Tyrosine from N-terminus of polypeptide chain
- In Eukaryotes the Proteolytic cleavage for biochemical modification of protein include______________________
a) Removal of Methionine from N-terminus of polypeptide chain by hydrolysis
b) Removal of N-formyl methionine from N-terminus of polypeptide chain by hydrolysis
c) Removal of threonine from N-terminus of polypeptide chainby hydrolysis
d) Removal of tyrosine from N-terminus of polypeptide chainby hydrolysis
- After protein synthesis certain enzymes and proteins undergo biochemical modification of some amino acids such as_____________________
a) Phosphorylation
b) Hydroxylation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Both a and b
- The amino acid modification by Phosphorylation is the__________________
a) Reversible process
b) Addition of Phosphate group
c) Post translational modification
d) All of the above
- In the post translational modification, Phosphorylation of amino acid is catalyzed by__
a) Protein phosphatase
b) Protein Synthetase
c) Protein kinase
d) Polymerase
- In case of post translational modification certain amino acids undergo Hydroxylation process is catalyzed by_________________
a) 2-oxoglutarate-dependent dioxygenase
b) 2-oxoglutarate-dependent deoxygenase
c) 3-oxoglutarate-dependent dioxygenase
d) 3-oxoglutarate-dependent deoxygenase
- The glycoproteins are ____________________ covalently bonded to the proteins
a) Lipid molecule
b) Carbohydrate molecule
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- The glycoprotein formation in the course of biochemical modification of protein provide_____________________________
a) Blood clotting
b) Cell-cell recognition
c) Immunological support
d) All of the above
- Many enzymes are modified and become more efficient by the addition of prosthetic groups such as ___________________
a) Biotin
b) Heme
c) Pantothenic Acid
d) All of the above
- The gene regulation include activation and inactivation of certain genes as per the requirement is also known as______________________
a) Differential gene action
b) Gene expression
c) Gene therapy
d) None of the above
- The mechanism of enzyme induction and repression at first was put forth in 1961, by________
a) Jacob and Monod
b) Baltimore
c) Epstein and Beckwith
d) Britten and Davidson
- The operon model consist of categories of genes such as __________________________
a) Regulator, Promoter, Operator and structural genes
b) Repressors, corepresor and inducer
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- The structural genes are _____________
a) The coded nucleotide sequence
b) Coded for proteins,
c) Coded for rRNA and tRNA
d) All of the above
- The operator is a short sequence that binds to the repressor, which prevent_____
a) Termination of transcription
b) Initiation of transcription
c) Elongation of translation
d) None of the above
- The R-I complex is the combination of _________________
a) Regulator plus inactive repressor
b) Repressor inducer complex
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- The operon model framed by_____________
a) Jacob and Monod
b) Baltimore
c) Epstein and Beckwith
d) Britten and Davidson
- The lacZ genein E. coli is coded for an enzyme_____________
a) β-galactosidase
b) β-galactoside permease
c) β-galactoside transacetylase
d) 2-oxoglutarate-dependent deoxygenase
- The lac promoter ha regions which are _____________________________
a) Dynamic
b) Polyhydric
c) Palindromic
d) Symmetrical
- In case of Eukaryotes Gene expression is controlled by_____________________
a) Regulatory proteins
b) Histones
c) DNA control system
d) All of the above
- The Britten-Davidson model of gene regulation is also known as____________
a) Gene therapy
b) Gene battery
c) Gene cloning
d) Gene mapping
- The Britten-Davidson model has some regulatory sequences such as ___________
a) Producer and lategrator genes
b) Receptor site
c) Sensor site
d) All of the above
- In case of Eukaryotes, the gene regulation at genomic level is through Gene _______________
a) Loss
b) Amplification
c) Rearrangement
d) All of the above
- During Gene regulation the transcriptional control is at_____________________
a) Chromosomal level
b) Gene level
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
- In post transcriptional control of gene regulation include the regulatory actions like
a) Choice of splice site and
b) Choice of poly(A) site.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer Key:
- Multiple Choice Questions
1.(c) Both a and b, 2.(d) All of the above, 3.(c) Both a and b, 4.(a) DNA TranscriptionmRNA Translation Protein, 5.(a) mRNA, 6.(c) Polypeptide chain, 7.(b) Genetic Code, 8.(b) Triplet, 9.(d) 150, 10.(d) both a and b, 11.(a) George Gamow, 12.(d) All of the above, 13.(a) Non-overlapping, 14.(d) All of the above, 15.(a) UGA, 16.(a) Isoleucine, Methionine, 17.(a) More than one amino acids coded by similar triplet codon, 18.(a) Isoleucine, Leucine or Serine, 19.(c) Third position, 20.(d) Both b and c, 21.(b) Inosine, 22.(d) All of the above, 23.(c) AUG, 24.(a) N-formyl methionine, 25.(c) Nirenberg and Matthaei, 26.(d) All of the above, 27.(c) Carboxyl group of one and amino group of other amino acid, 28.(c) Both a and b, 29.(d) All of the above, 30.(a) Two α, one β, one β’, one ω and a σ factor, 31.(c) Both a and b, 32.(d) All of the above, 33.(d) All of the above, 34.(a) One or two bases long, 35.(b) Local unwinding of double helix and small segment of DNA double helix opens up, 36.(c) i-iii-ii-iv-v, 37.(b) Transcription, 38.(b) Purine, 39.(a) Ribonucleoside triphosphate, 40.(c) Replicase, 41.(d) All of the above, 42.(b) Reverse transcriptase, 43.(d) All of the above, 44.(c) II – I – III – VI - V – IV, 45.(a) 20%, 46.(d) All of the above, 47.(c) Splicing, 48.(d) all of the above, 49.(a) Adenylate residue at the 3’ end, 50.(d) All of the above, 51.(a) The formation of cap at 5’ end by guanylate residue condensation, 52.(c) Methylation, 53.(b) I – II – III – IV – V, 54.(d) All of the above, 55.(c) Heat shock proteins, 56.(b) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase, 57.(c) Aminoacyl adenylate synthetase, 58.(c) High energy ester bond in between amino acid and tRNA, 59.(a) Carboxyl group of amino acid and 3’ hydroxyl group of tRNA, 60.(b) IF 1, IF2 and IF 3, 61.(c) IF3, 62.(d) All of the above, 63.(b) Elongation Factors, 64.(a) 50S and 30S, 65.(c) Translocation of the mRNA, 66.(c) Both a and b, 67.(d) All of the above, 68.(a) tRNA, 69.(d) Both b and c, 70.(a) Simultaneous movement of tRNA and mRNA on the ribosome from codon to codon, 71.(c) Both a and b, 72.(b) Translocase, 73.(c) EF-G, 74.(a) E site, 75.(a) Termination codon of mRNA, 76.(a) RF-1, 77.(a) Hydrolysis of polypeptide chain at the P site of ribosome, 78.(d) All of the above, 79.(d) All of the above, 80.(c) Both a and b simultaneously, 81.(b) Endoplasmic reticulum, 82.(d) All of the above, 83.(a) Ferruccio Ritossa, 84.(c) Drosophila, 85.(a) Attain its functional form, 86.(d) All of the above, 87.(a) N- formyl methionine from N-terminus of polypeptide chain, 88.(a) Removal of Methionine from N-terminus of polypeptide chain by hydrolysis, 89.(d) Both a and b, 90.(b) Addition of Phosphate group, 91.(c) Protein kinase, 92.(a) 2-oxoglutarate-dependent dioxygenase, 93.(b) Carbohydrate molecule, 94.(d) All of the above, 95.(d) All of the above, 96.(a) Differential gene action, 97.(a) Jacob and Monod, 98.(c) Both a and b, 99.(d) All of the above, 100.(b) Initiation of transcription, 101.(b) Repressor inducer complex, 102.(a) Jacob and Monod, 103.(a) β-galactosidase, 104.(c) Palindromic, 105.(d) All of the above, 106.(b) Gene battery, 107.(d) All of the above, 108.(d) All of the above, 109.(c) Both a and b, 110.(c) Both a and b.
- Fill in the Blanks
- The polypeptide chain of _____________is translated from mRNA
- Post transcription specific sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA gives rise to ________________ strand of mRNA.
- The sequence of ___________ in DNA or RNA, which determines the amino acid sequence in polypeptide chain, is known as Genetic code.
- A Specific amino acid coded by three adjacent nucleotide bases in mRNA is known as _______________.
- __________ Amino acids are naturally occurring, while 20 Amino acids are coded with 61 codons.
- Total _______ combinations of triplet codons made from 4 nitrogenous bases.
- Out of 64 amino acids 3 codons do not read by tRNA but read by release factors, known as ______________.
- First time _______________________ coined the term Triplet codon.
- The genetic code is similar in all organisms except mitochondrial mRNA that’s why it is called as ______________________.
- Exception to the universal code in some ciliated protozoa UAA and UAG codes _______________ and do not codes stop codon.
- In the sensitive E. coli strain streptomycin __________ codes for phenylalanine but also codes Isoleucine, Leucine or serine while it treated with ribosome.
- ____________________________ states that, ‘the number of tRNA found are less than 61, which means multiple mRNA codons read by anticodon of a one tRNA.’
- The pairing of tRNA anticodon and Triplet codon of mRNA at its third position is_______________ that is wobbles position.
- The start codon AUG codes for amino acid ________________in eukaryotes
- Nirenberg and Matthaei deciphered first artificial codon UUU from synthetic mRNA introduction to E. coli. Which code amino acid _________________.
- The process of protein synthesis requires _________________ as Machinery.
- The termination of RNA synthesis takes place by binding of RNA polymerase to ______ Protein.
- The complete genetic code is unfolded by __________________________ , they follows series of experiments for this.
- _____________ is a RNA dependent RNA polymerase.
- The RNA viruses can transcribe DNA from RNA template, because they contain a special enzyme___________________.
- The synthesis of DNA template from RNA by reverse transcription in _______direction.
- Reverse transcriptase degrades ____________ from DNA/RNA hybrid.
- hnRNA containing long and various nucleotide sequence is made by an enzyme_____________________
- After processing hnRNA become __________________________________.
- The nonfunctional introns are erased and functional exons ligated to form functional mRNA is the process of ________________
- By different _______________ Mechanism single hnRNA could processed to various mRNAs
- The addition of adenylate residues at ____ end of pre mRNA is called Polyadenylation process
- The molecular chaperon belongs to _____________________ families of heat shock proteins.
- Hsp6o is also known as ___________________.
- Inhibition of expression of certain genes by some RNA molecules is called as post transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS) or _____________________.
- FILL IN THE BLANKS
1) Amino acids; 2) Complementary; 3) Nucleotide; 4) Triplet Codon; 5) 150; 6) 64;7) Stop or Termination codon; 8)George Gamow; 9) Universal Code; 10) Glutamicacid; 11) UUU; 12) Wobble hypothesis; 13) not specific; 14) Methionine;15)Phenylalanine; 16) Ribosome; 17) rho; 18) Nirenberg, Matthaei and Khorana;19) Replicase; 20) Reverse transcriptase; 21) 5’ to 3’; 22) RNA strand; 23) RNA Polymerase II; 24) Cytoplasmic mRNA; 25) Splicing; 26) Looping; 27) 3’ OH; 28) Hsp60 and Hsp70; 29) Chaperonin; 30) RNAi.
- True or False
- After transcription of DNA thymine gets replaced with uracil on mRNA.
- True
- False
- Uracil is one of the nitrogenous base of DNA molecule
- True
- False
- The Genetic code is the specific sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA or RNA and it decides the amino acid sequence of polypeptide chain.
- True
- False
- The Triplet codon is a specific sequence of nitrogenous bases on mRNA which codes a specific amino acid in a protein.
- True
- False
- There are total 64 codons out of which 61 are coded for 20 Amino acids.
- True
- False
- Initiation codon is also called as stop codon.
- True
- False
- Stop codon is also known as termination codon as they do not specify any tRNA.
- True
- False
- Singlet or doublet code also specifies 20 amino acids like triplet code does.
- True
- False
- The Genetic code is different in different species except mitochondrial mRNA.
- True
- False
- The mRNA triplet codon at its first two have strong pairing with anticodon of tRNA
- True
- False
- Due to wobble position Inosine pair with 3 codons having A, C and U at third position.
a) True
b) False
- The anticodon of tRNA is the sequence of three nucleotides which is complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon
a) True
b) False
- In case of bacteria if AUG deleted by mutation the GUG acts as start codon.
a) True
b) False
- Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
a) True
b) False
- During protein synthesis GTP used as an energy and ATP used to form peptide bond in between two adjacent amino acids
a) True
b) False
- The σ factor helps to identify start signal on DNA and leads RNA polymerase on promoter Site.
a) True
b) False
- Lac operon is the inducible operon
a) True
b) False
- During protein synthesis an enzyme Translocase required for chain elongation
a) True
b) False
- The enzyme Peptidyl transeferase helps RF1 to release polypeptide from P site.
a) True
b) False
- Temin, Baltimore and Mizutani discovered the mechanism of reverse transcription in 1970.
a) True
b) False
- The regulator genes produces the repressor proteins
a) True
b) False
- The signals that stops RNA synthesis are terminator
a) True
b) False
- CAP stands forCatabolite activator protein
a) True
b) False
- Inducer and repressor works vice versa during enzyme synthesis
a) True
b) False
- The Aporepressor are active repressors that inactivated by binding with copressor
a) True
b) False
- The enzyme β-galactosidase hydrolyses lactose to yield glucose and galactose.
a) True
b) False
- The transcription of LacI gene leads to mRNA that translated to the protein lac
Promoter
- True
- False
- β-galactoside permease is a protein is essential for the active transport oflactose into the bacterial cell.
a) True
b) False
- The enzymes β-galactoside transacetylase is dimer which can transfer an acetyl group from acetyl-COA to some P-galactosides to form an acetylthiogalactoside.
a) True
b) False
- lacO1, lacO2 and lacO3 are the operators of lac operon.
a) True
b) False
- True or False
- True; 2) False; 3) True; 4) True; 5) True; 6) False; 7) True; 8) False; 9) False; 10) True; 11)True; 12) True; 13) True; 14) True; 15) False; 16) True; 17) True;18) True; 19) True; 20) True;21) True; 22) True; 23) True; 24) True;25) False; 26) True; 27) False; 28) True; 29) True; 30) True
- Answer in one sentence
- How many nitrogenous bases are the key constituents of DNA molecule?
- Name the intermediate convener in the process of formation of polypeptide chain?
- The nucleotide sequence in DNA transcript to which sequence of mRNA?
- What does it termed as, “a specific amino acid is coded by three adjacent nucleotide sequences in mRNA”?
- How many codons are there to code 20 Amino acids?
- How many amino acids would specify by singlet and doublet code respectively?
- Define polarity in the sense of features of Genetic code?
- Define Ambiguous nature of genetic code?
- Define degeneracy of genetic code?
- List the amino acids each of theseis coded by 6 triplet codons?
- What is co-linearity of genetic code?
- Start codon GUG in bacteria codes for which amino acid?
- Who synthesized mRNA with known nucleotide repeated sequence?
- What is sense strand?
- Which metals are effective in transcription during protein synthesis?
- Who constitutes holoenzyme?
- How does it effect when RNA polymerase binds to DNA?
- What is the end product of the reaction of Activated ribonucleoside triphosphate and DNA template?
- In which direction the Chain elongation takes place during synthesis of mRNA?
- How does mRNA synthesis terminated?
- Define the term Replicase.
- Where does reverse transcription occurs?
- What is reverse transcription?
- Who got Nobel prize for the discovery of Genetic code?
- Who functions as repressor in operon concept?
- Which activity of reverse transcriptase can copy DNA and also RNA?
- What is Proviral DNA or Provirus?
- What is hnRNA?
- How does hnRNA processed?
- What is Hsp60?
- What is the function of Hsp60?
- Which type of amino acids participates in protein synthesis?
- Name the first event of translation during protein synthesis?
- What is the product of reaction of amino acyl adenylate and tRNA?
- Where the initiation factors IF1, IF2 and IF3 were found?
- What is the function of IF1and IF2?
- What is N-formyl methionine?
- What is the first step of protein synthesis?
- Name the three steps of translation?
- Name the elongation factors that involved in elongation of polypeptide chain during translation?
- What is the process of elongation during translation?
- What is the reason of binding of f-met-tRNA to P site of ribosome?
- Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction of peptide bond formation during elongation process of translocation?
- What is Aminoacyl tRNA?
- What is nonsense codon?
- How does termination codon works?
- How molecular chaperon does help to maintain protein folding?
- Define the term gene regulation?
- What is operon model?
- How does promoter works?
- Answers of one Answer sentence
- Four nitrogenous bases are the key constituents of DNA molecule.
- The mRNA is intermediate convener in the process of formation of polypeptide chain.
- The nucleotide sequence in DNA transcript to Complementary sequence of mRNA.
- A specific amino acid is coded by three adjacent nucleotide sequences in mRNA, is termed as Triplet Codon.
- Total 61 codons are there to code 20 Amino acids.
- About 4 and 16 amino acids would specify by singlet and doublet code respectively.
- Polarity is the feature of Genetic code because it read in a fixed direction that is 5’ to 3’.
- The Ambiguous nature of Genetic code is defined as “More than one amino acids coded by similar triplet codon”.
- The degeneracy of genetic code is defined as “one Amino acid is code by multiple triplet codons, so codons may be replaced for the same amino acid.”
- Leucine, Arginine and Serine each of these amino acids is coded by 6 triplet codons.
- The same order and arrangement of codon in DNA, mRNA and subsequent polypeptidechain is termed as Colinearity of genetic code.
- Start codon GUG in bacteria codes for Valine.
- Dr. H. G. Khorana synthesized mRNA with known nucleotide repeated sequence
- One DNA strand of two that transcribed to mRNA is Sense strand.
- Divalent metals like Mn ++ / Mg ++ are effective in transcription during protein synthesis.
- Core enzyme and σ factor constitutes holoenzyme.
- The double helix DNA unwinds at that local site where RNA polymerase binds to DNA.
- RNA polymer, DNA template and 4n ppi is the end product of the reaction of Activated ribonucleoside triphosphate and DNA template
- TheChain elongation during synthesis of mRNA takes place in 5’ to 3’ direction.
- mRNA synthesis is terminated when RNA polymerase read Poly A sequence on DNA template which transcribed to terminal poly U sequence.
- The synthesis of complementary RNA from RNA template by reverse transcription is catalyzed by an enzyme called Replicase
- Reverse transcription occurs in RNA viruses or RNA retroviruses.
- Reverse transcription is the process of DNA synthesis by copying nucleotide sequence from RNA templates.
- Nirenberg and H. G. Khorana got Nobel prize for the discovery of Genetic code.
- Regulator gene functions as repressor in operon concept.
- RNAse activity of reverse transcriptase can copy DNA and also RNA.
- At the end of reverse transcription synthesized dsDNA get inserted into host chromosome is known as Proviral DNA or Provirus.
- hnRNA is the heterogeneous nuclear RNA or Pre mRNA of long polypeptide chain.
- While processing Noncoded region removed and coded regions joined to make RNA more effective in function.
- The Hsp60 is a family of chaperons, also called as chaperonin.
- The function of Hsp60 is to prevent protein misfolding and guide proper protein folding.
- Only L (left handed) type of amino acids participates in protein synthesis.
- Activation of amino acid is the first event of translation during protein synthesis.
- The product of reaction of amino acyl adenylate and tRNA is amino acid tRNA complex, AMP and amino acyl tRNA synthetase.
- The initiation factors IF1, IF2 and IF3 were found in 30S subunit of ribosome.
- IF1 and IF2 paly important role in binding of initiation of tRNA to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
- Methionine present in prokaryotes, carries a formyl group at its amino group called N- formyl methionine.
- The first step of protein synthesis is the 30S initiation complex formation.
- Initiation, elongation and termination are the 3 steps of translation.
- EF-Tu, EF-Ts and EF-G are the elongation factors that involved in elongation of polypeptide chain during translation.
- The process of elongation during translation is the addition of amino acids to polypeptide chain.
- The f-met-tRNA binds to the P site of ribosome because already amino acyl tRNA binds to A site
- The enzyme Peptidyl transeferase catalyze the reaction of peptide bond formation during elongation process of translocation.
- The Aminoacyl tRNA is acharged tRNA who deliver amino acids to ribosome for polypeptide chain elongation.
- Nonsense codon is the termination codon as there is no binding of tRNA.
- The termination codon deliver signal to the ribosome for attachment of release factor
- The molecular chaperons help to maintain protein folding byProtection and stabilization of tertiary intermediates.
- The gene regulation is the process of controlling gene expression by switching them ‘on’ or ‘off’ as per requirement of the metabolism.
- The operon model is the mechanism of gene regulation which comprises activation and inactivation of certain genes as per requirement.
- Promoters are the indicators while RNA synthesis, plays important role in binding RNA polymerase to start transcription.
- Terminologies
- Ambiguous codon: The multiple amino acids coding triplet code
- amino acyl-tRNA synthetase: also known as tRNA-ligase, is an enzyme that attaches the proper amino acid onto its conforming tRNA.
- AMP: Adenosine Mono-Phosphate, elementof RNA and ATP
- Anticodon: A trinucleotide sequence on tRNA binds to complementary sequence of mRNA.
- Aporepressor: inhibit transcription of certain enzymes by binding with its particular corepresor
- Attenuation: It is a mechanism of gene regulation in bacteria which confirm appropriate translation and transcription.
- CAP site: The site of Catabolite activator protein, where Transcription starts.
- Capping: It is a process, in which exons are merged by elimination of intermediate introns.
- Central dogma: Is the mechanism of transcription of DNA to mRNA and translation of mRNA to functional polypeptide chain.
- Colinearity: means the similar order of sequences in all DNA, mRNA and polypeptide chain while protein synthesis.
- Copolymers: Is the polymer, than consists of more than one discrete repeating units of monomers
- Core enzyme: The Subunit that needed for the catalytic activity of an enzyme.
- Corepresor: gene expression inhibiting molecules, which bind to promoter, block it and inhibit transcription process.
- Davidson model: Is the model of gene regulation in Eukaryotes
- Degenerate code: One amino acid is coded with multiple codons.
- Elongation factors: polypeptide chain elongation promoting proteins.
- Endonuclease: An enzyme which breaks phosphodiester bond in nucleotide sequence of DNA
- Essential amino acid: This is not produced in the body but supplied by food source.
- Gene battery: a model of gene regulation.
- Gene expression: the mechanism of reading genetic code and production of certain products by the cell is called as gene expression.
- Gene Regulation: the process of switching gene on or off as requirement is known as gene regulation.
- Gene silencing: the mechanism to turn off certain gene is called as gene silencing.
- Genetic code: Are the different combinations of four base pairs that coded for 20 amino acids
- Guanosine triphosphate: is a purine nucleoside triphosphate takes part in transcription.
- Heat shock proteins: during stressful condition cell produce certain proteins are called heat shock protein.
- hnRNA: Is a Pre mature mRNA
- Inducer: Is the gene which induces transcription by inactivation of repressor.
- Initiation codon: Is the first codon of initiation complex which binds to activators and inhibits repressor to control gene regulation.
- Inosine: Is a modification in RNA made by certain Enzymes resulting in variety of transcriptome.
- Integrator gene:Group of genes which are activated by extracellular stimuli.
- Lac operon: Genes coded for the protein that takes part in lactose transport and metabolism into the cytosol.
- Leader sequence: Is the sequence of nucleotide which is placed in between promoter and coding region takes part in gene regulation.
- Methylation: Is the addition of methyl group at the place of hydrogen atom.
- Molecular Chaperons: are the proteins that serves in proper protein folding
- Nonsense codon: The triplet codon in mRNA, with no normal tRNA and signals termination of translation.
- Operator gene: The gene coded for the beginning of transcription of DNA to mRNA.
- Palindromic: Is the similar sequence of nucleotide on both complementary strands of dsDNAOr RNA.
- Peptidyl transeferase: the enzyme takes part in addition of amino acid residues in Polypeptide chain during protein synthesis
- Photopolymers: class of resins that are light sensitive.
- Polyadenylation: Is a modification of pre mRNA by addition of Poly(A) at the end.
- Polypeptide chain: Long Chain of amino acids that are covalently bonded to each other by peptide bond
- Prosthetic Groups: Are the non-amino acid molecules that associated with proteins to alter biological functions of proteins.
- Protein folding: Is the 3D arrangement of protein for the improvement of its functional role.
- Proteolytic Cleavage: Is the process to cleave peptide bonds in between amino acids
- Release factor: Is a protein which identifies termination codon to stop translation.
- Reverse transcription: Is the synthesis of DNA molecule from RNA template
- Rho factor: Is a protein that facilitate termination of transcription at different sites
- Riboswitches: Are elements that directly bind to specific ligands to regulate gene expression for gene regulation.
- RNA Interference: The process of suppression of gene expression by RNA.
- RNA polymerase: Is an enzyme catalyzes the transcription of DNA to mRNA.
- Sense strand: Is the single strand of DNA which can be transcribed to mRNA
- Sigma factor: Is a component of RNA polymerase enzyme which helps to recognize and binds to initiation site for RNA synthesis
- Splicing: Is the process of deletion of noncoded sequence and joining of coded sequences.
- Stop codon: Is the triplet codonin mRNA and codes for the termination of protein synthesis
- TATA boxes: Is the genetic sequence reading and decoding region of DNA is called as TATA boxes
- Termination codon: the triplet codon that code termination of Polypeptide chain in protein synthesis
- Transcription: During protein synthesis DNA template transcribed to mRNA template is called Transcription
- Translation: The transcribed mRNA strand is converted to polypeptide chain is called translation
- Translocation: In this process the part of a chromosome is transmitted at another chromosome
- Triplet codon: The set of three adjacent nucleotide sequence on mRNA and polypeptide chain is a triplet codon
- Universal code: The set if three codons codes 20 amino acids which is common for all organisms except only some cases is Universal code
- Wobble pairing:Is the pairing of codon at its third position to tRNA, with variable combinations.
Unit IV
Mutation
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. Multiple Choice Questions
Q.1) Mutation occurs by any physical and chemical change in the organization of genes at molecular level is a type of mutation
a) Point mutation b) Induced mutation
c) Chromosomal mutation d) Somatic mutation
Q.2) About mutation which of the following statement is INCORRECT
a) Major source of evaluation b) usually deleterious and recessive
c) Mutation is predestined d) It is a reversible process
Q.3) Which of the following is NOT a type of reverse mutation?
a) Back mutation
b) Intergenic suppressor mutation
c) Intragenic suppressor mutation
d) Missense mutation
Q.4) Which of the following is NOT true for loss of function mutation?
a) Usually recessive
b) Most common mutation
c) Increases the activity of the gene
d) Null allelic mutation
Q.5) Which of the following chemical mutagen affects only replicating DNA?
a) Acridine dye b) Alkylating agent
c) Deaminating agent d) Base analog
Q.6) Addition or deletion of bases causes which kind of mutation?
a) Transversion
b) Frameshift mutation
c) Transition
d) Transcription
Q.7) Name the type of mutation in which the cause of mutation is not known?
a) Spontaneous mutation
b) Suppressor mutation
c) Nonsense mutation
d) Mis-sense mutation
Q.8) What is the detection technique of auxotroph’s?
a) Spread plating
b) Replica plating
c) Streaking
d) Pouring
Q.9) Name the term given to the type of mutation, which depends on the conditions of the environment?
a) Forward mutation
b) Reverse mutation
c) Conditional lethal mutation
d) Gain of function mutation
Q.10)Chromosome 21 trisomy results in
a) Down’s syndrome b) Turner’s syndrome
c) Klinfilter syndrome d) none of the above
Q.11) Mutagenic agent caused which type of mutation
a) Frameshift Mutation b)Induced Mutation c)Spontaneous mutation d) none of these
Q.12) one extra chromosome in diploid are called as
a)Trisomics b) Tetrasomics c) Double trisomics d)double tetrasomics
Q.13) the condition when single chromosome is loss are called as
a)Nullisomy b)Haploidy c) monosomy d)Trisomy
Q.14) The phenomenon in which the chromosome number get varied are called
a) Diploidy b) Euploidy c) Aneuploidy d) Heteroploidy
Q.15 )Trisomy expressed as
a) 2n+1 b) 2n-1 c) 2n+2 d) 2n-2
Q.16)Mutation occurring in gametic cell are called as
a) Induced mutation b) Somatic mutation c) Gametic mutation d) Chromosomal muatation
Q.17) The ability of a molecule to exist in more than one chemical form is called as
a) Tautomerism b) Ionisation c) Translocation d) Transformation
Q.18) Addition of a part of chromosome is called
a) Deletion b) Inversion c) Duplication d) Translocation
Q.19) Loss of broken part of chromosome is called
a) Deletion b) Inversion c) Duplication d) translocation
Q.20) when one chromosome of the diploid organism is present four times, then resulted
a) Trisomy b) Tetrasomy c) Monosomy d) None of the above
Q.21) the mutation occurs under natural condition are called as
a) Induced mutation b) Spontaneous mutation c) Chromosomal mutation d) Somatic mutation
Q.22) which of the following is not physical agent
a) X-ray b) UV rays c) Nitrous acid d) Beta rays
Q.23) Which of the following is not chemical agent?
a) Nitrous acid b) maleic hydrazide c) ethyl methane sulphate d) UV rays
Q.24) Point mutation is
a) Addition b) Deletion c) Change in single base pair d) Duplication
Q.25) Gene mutation take place at the time of
a) Cell division b) DNA repairs c)RNA transcription d) DNA replication
Q.26) Mutation in X-rays causes due to
a) Transition b) Translation c) Deletion d) Base substitution
Q.27) From the following which is NOT ionising radiation
a)Gamma rays b) X-rays c) cosmic rays d) UV rays
Q.28) Trisomy in 18th chromosome cases which syndrome
a) Down’s syndrome b) Edward’s syndrome c) Patau’s syndrome d) none of the above
Q.29) Trisomy in 13th chrome lead to syndrome
a) Down’s syndrome b) Edward’s syndrome c) Patau’s syndrome d) none of the above
Q.30 ) Gene Amplification is the technique done by
a) PCR b) Western blotting c) southern blotting d) none of the above.
Q.31) Western Blotting Technique isused for detection of
a) RNA in sample b) DNA in sample c) Protein in sample d) lipid in sample
Q.32) For DNA fingerprinting which technique is used
a) Northern Blotting b) Western blotting c) southern blotting d) eastern Blotting
Q.33) For the identifying m-RNA from the sample which technique is suitable?
a) Northern Blotting b) Western blotting c) Southern blotting d) Eastern Blotting
Q.34) In the southern blotting technique genome is used to identify
a) RNA sequence b) DNA fragment c) sequences d) Number of sequences
Q.35) Application of southern blotting technique is
a) preparation of RFLP mapsb) DNA fingerprintingc) Identification of transferred genes
d) all of these
Q.36) The change in the genome involving chromosome parts, whole chromosome or whole chromosome set are called as
a) Frameshift mutation b) Gametic mutation c) Chromosomal mutation d) Induced mutation
Q.37) Deletion of part of short arm of one X- chromosome produces
a) Cri-du-chat syndrome b) Turner’s syndrome c) Down’s syndrome d) Patau’s syndrome
Q.38) From the following which is the example of deletion of chromosome
a) Down’s syndrome b) Turner’s syndrome c) Edward’s syndrome d) none of the above
Q.39 ) From the given which od the DNA repair mechanism is called as “cut and patch” mechanism?
a)base excision method b) photo reactivation c) nucleotide excision repair d) Mismatch repair
Q.40) In the mismatch repair mechanism, nascent DNA strand cut by the endonuclease activity done by
a) Mut H b) Mut S c) Mut L d) Uvrd
Q.41) Double strand break repair is also called as recombinational repair system because
a) Both strand act as templateb) Both strands are brokenc) One strand is broken
d) No strand is broken
Q.42) What is excision repair?
a) Repair of a single damaged nucleotideb) Removal of a damaged oligonucleotide
c) Repair of a damaged oligonucleotide d) Removal of a single damaged nucleotide
Q.43) Which mutation are included from outcome of point mutation?
a)Nonsense mutation b) missense mutation c) silent mutation d) all the above
Q.44) Randommutation occurs due to
a) Chemical factor b) radiation c) external factor d) all the above
Q.45)From the given duplication which of them involves more than one chromosome
a)Displaced b) Transposed c) Tandem duplicationd) Reverse tandem duplication
Q.46) The Streisinger’s model explains__________
a) Transposition b) Frame shifts mutation c) Transitiond) Inversion
Q.47) The highest number of eye facet found in
a) Heterozygous Bar male Drosophila b) Homozygous bar Female
c) Heterozygous Bar female Drosophilad) Ultra bar female Drosophila
Q.48) Due to duplication what happens from following?
a) Dominance
b) Co-dominance
c) Incomplete dominance
d) Pleiotropy
Q.49) The PCR technique was developed by
(a) Kohler b) Kary Mullis c) Altman d) none of the above
Q.50)The basic requirement of PCR reaction is
(a) A heat-stable DNA polymerase
(b) Two oligonucleotide primers
(c) DNA segment to be amplified
(d) All of the above
Q.51) In the PCR which is the first and the most important step
a) Primer extension, b) Denaturation, c) Annealing, d) None of the above
Q.52)The process of binding of primer to the denatured strand called as
a) Denaturation b) Annealing c) Renaturation d) None of the above
Q.53) Denaturation is the process of heating between
(a) 72°C
(b) 40 to 60°C
(c) 90 to 98°C
(d) none of the above
Q.54) About PCR Which of the following statements are true ?
(a) Annealing involves the binding of primer between 40 to 60C°C
(b) Primer extension occurs at 72°C
(c) Denaturation involves heating at 90 to 98°C
(d) All of the above
Q.55) In PCR Polymerase used is extracted from which of following?
(a) Thermus aquaticus
(b) Homo sapiens
(c) Escherichia coli
d) none of the above
Q.56) Reverse transcription PCR uses as
(a) RNA as a template to form DNA
(b) m-RNA as a template to form cDNA
(c) DNA as a template to form sDNA
(d) All of the above
Q.57) In the codon, the changing one amino acid into another, then this type of mutation is called as
a) Point mutation b) Missense mutation c) silent mutation d) Termination mutation
Q.58) PCR technique is used for
a)DNA cloning b) gene amplification c) production of probes d) all of these
Q.59) For detection of point mutation which technique is suitable
a)PCR b)RTPCR c) Anchored PCR d) Allele specific PCR
Q.60) For the study of RNA expression level which PCR technique is developed?
a) Anchored PCR b) Traditional PCR c) RT PCR d)None of the above
Q.61)DNA Fingerprinting was develop by
a)Khorana b) Alec Jeffery c) JamesWatson d) Francis Crick
Q.62) Application of DNA fingerprinting
a) Criminal identification, b) Phylogenetic study c) medical and plant science d) all of the above
Q.63) The organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called as
a) Haploid b) Euploid c) Polyploids d) None of the above
Q.64) Addition of one more chromosome to the genome of an organism and includes trisomy and tetrasomy are called as
a) Monoploidy b) Euploidy c) Hyperpoidy d) Aneuploidy
Q.65) The addition or loss of one or more chromosome to complete diploid chromosome complement of organism are called as
a) Monoploidy b) Euploidy c) Hyperpoidy d) Aneuploidy
Q.66) aneuploidy represents
a) addition of some parts of chromosome. b) deletion of some parts of chromosome
c) increase in multiple sets of chromosome d) increase or decrease number of chromosome
Q.67) Euploidy represents
a) addition of some parts of chromosome.
b) deletion of some parts of chromosome
c) increase in multiple sets of chromosome
d) increase or decrease number of chromosome
Q.68) When one chromosome is missing then it called as
a) Monosomy b) Trisomy c) Tetrasomy d) Nullisomy
Q.69) When two chromosome is missing then it called as
a) Monosomy b) Trisomy c) Tetrasomy d) Nullisomy
Q.70) when increase in one chromosome then it called as
a) Monosomy b) Trisomy c) Tetrasomy d) Nullisomy
Q.71) when increase in two chromosome then it is called as
a) Monosomy b) Trisomy c) Tetrasomy d) Nullisomy
Q.72) Down syndrome was discovered by
a) Mendel b) Langdon Downc) Edward c) Morgan
Q.73) In which of the following phenomenon formation of n+1 gametes take place due to
a) crossing over b) linkage c) disjunction d) non- disjunction
Q.74) In which syndrome,mental retardation in child is main characteristics
a) cri-du-chat syndrome b) Down syndrome c) Turner syndrome
d) klinefelter syndrome
Q.75) From which parents mangolian child arises
a) normal women giving birth to child
b) higher age women giving birth to child
c) both a and b
D) none of the above
Q.76) In which of the syndrome, the abnormality consists of prominence of the posterior part of heel, cleft lip, deafness is
a) Cri-du-chat syndrome b) Down syndrome
c) klinefelter syndrome d) Patau’s syndrome
Q.77) child can produce a sound resembling the mewing of cat in which which of the following syndrome
a) cri-du-chat syndrome b) down syndrome
c) klinefelter syndrome d) Patau’s syndrome
Q.78) 24) Which of the following syndrome caused gynecomastia
a) Down syndrome c) Patau’s syndrome
c) Klinefelter syndrome d) cri-du-chat syndrome
Q.79) Klinefelter’s syndrome is found only in
a) Female b) male c) both male and female d) none
Q.80) Turner syndrome is caused by
a) trisomy in allosome of female
b) monosomy in allosome of female
c) nulliosomy in allosome of female
d) tetrasomy in allosome of female
Q.81) Which syndrome causes hypogonadism
a) Down syndrome c) Patau’s syndrome
c) Klinefelter syndrome d) Turner’s syndrome
Q.82) Chromosome representation in Turner syndrome is
a) (44 + XO) b) ( 44 + XX ) c) ( 44 + XXX ) d) ( 44 + XXY)
Q.83)The presence of chromosome number which is multiple of the basic chromosome set is
a) Euploidyb) Anneuploidy c) monosomy d) trisomy
Q.84)Presence of more than two sets of chromosome, which are coming from same parents
a) Euploidyb) aneuploidy c) Autopolyploidy d) polyploidy
Q.85) A portion of chromosome is changes to another chromosome
a) Deletion b) Translocation c) Duplication d) Reciprocal translocation
Q.86) Segment from two different chromosome has been exchanged is in which type of chromosome
a) Duplicationb) Deletionc) Translocationd) Reciprocal translocation
Q.87) A portion of chromosome broken off and turn upside down and reattach so this is genetic material is inverted
a) Inversion
b) duplication
c) Translocation
d) Deletion
Q.88) which type of Euploidy is found in wheat
a) Triploidy, b) Tetraploidy c) Pentaploidy d) Hexaploidy
Q.89) Turner syndrome is causes by
a) Monosomy b) Trisomy c) Nulliosomy d) Tetrasomy
Q.90) A portion of one chromosome has been deleted from its normal place and inserted into another chromosome, his process of called as
a) Insertion b) Inversionc) Translocationd) Reciprocal translocation
Q.91 20) Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused due to
a) Deletion of one arm of 5th autosome
b) Deletion of one arm of 6th autosome
c) Deletion of one arm of 4th autosome
d) Deletion of one arm of 8th autosome
Q.92) The phenomenon in which formation of n+1 gametes take place is
a) Linkage b) Crossing over c) Disjunction d) Non- disjunction
Q.93) Due to change in number of chromosome which chromosomal disorder is arises
a) Material disorder b) Numerical disorder c) Substantive disorder d) Structural disorder
Q.94 ) Due to change in structure of chromosome which chromosomal disorder is arises
a) Material disorder b) Numerical disorder c) Structural disorder d) Substantive disorder
Q.95) Most of the genetic disorders is caused by
(a) Mutation
(b) Inheritance
(c) Chromosomal abnormalities
(d) All of the above
Q.96 ) which disease from the following called as Royal disease?
a) Haemophilia b) Sickle cell anaemia c) Colour blindness d) None of the above
Q.97) From the following identify the Mendelian disease?
a) Down syndrome b) Phenylketonuria
c) klinefelter syndrome d) Turner’s syndrome
Q.98) In which condition, the somatic cell of the individual contain three sex chromosome that is XXX
a) Down syndrome b) Klinefelter syndrome c)Turner’s syndrome d) super female
Q.99) a condition in which man has enlarged breast, spare hairs on body with XXY sex chromosome found in which syndrome
a) Down syndrome b) Klinefelter’s syndrome c) Turner’s syndrome d) super female
Q.100) Down’s syndrome is caused due to
a) Viral infection b) Chromosomal abnormalities c) Bacterial abnormalities d) None of the above
A. Multiple Choice Questions
Q.1) Point mutation 2) c) Mutation is predestined, 3 d) Missense mutation, 4c) Increases the activity of the gene, 5 d) Base analog, 6) Frameshift mutation, 7 a) Spontaneous mutation 8 b) Replica plating, 9 c) Conditional lethal mutation,10 a) Down’s syndrome, 11 b) Induced Mutation, 12 a)Trisomics,13 c) monosomy,14 c) Aneuploidy 15 a) 2n+1, 16 c) Gametic mutation, 17 a) Tautomerism, 18 c) Duplication, 19 a) deletion, 20 b) Tetrasomy, 21 b) spontaneous mutation, 22 c) Nitrous acid 23 d) UV rays, 24 c) change in single base pair, 25 d) DNA replication, 26 c) deletion, 27 d) UV rays, 28 b) Edward’s syndrome, 29c) Patau’s syndrome, 30 a) PCR 31 c) protein in sample, 32 c) southern blotting,33 a) Northern Blotting 34 d) Number of sequences, 35 d) all of these, 36 c) chromosomal mutation, 37 b) Turner’s syndrome,;38 b) Turner’s syndrome,39 c) Nucleotide excision repair 40 a) Mut H
41 b) Both strands are broken,42 d) Removal of a single damaged nucleotide,43 d) all the above 44 d) all the above, 45 b) Transposed, 46 b) Frame shifts mutation, 47 c) Heterozygous Bar female Drosophila, 48 d) Pleiotropy.; 49 b) Kary Mullis ,; 50) (d) All of the above, 51 b) Denaturation, 52 b) Annealing 53(c) 90 to 98°C, 54 (d) All of the above55 (a) Thermus aquaticus56(b) mRNA as a template to form cDNA , 57 b) Missence mutation 58 d) all of these, 59 d) Allele specific PCR60) c) RT PCR,; 61b) Alec Jeffery, 62 d) all of the above, 63 c) polyploids 64 c) Hyperpoidy 65 d) Aneuploidy 66 d) increase or decrease number of chromosome , 67 c) increase in multiple sets of chromosome 68 a) Monosomy 69 d) Nullisomy 70 b) Trisomy 71 c) Tetrasomy 72 b) Langdon Down 73 d) non- disjunction,74 b) Down syndrome, 75 b) higher age women giving birth to child 76 d) Patau’s syndrome, 77 a) cri-du-chat syndrome 78 c) klinefelter syndrome 79 b) male, 80 b) monosomy in allosome of female, 81 d) Turner’s syndrome,; 82 a) ( 44 + XO ) 83 a) euploidy 84 c) autopolyploidy, 85 b) translocation,; 86 d) reciprocal translocation87 a) Inversion, 88 d) hexaploidy.89 a) monosomy 90 a) insertion 91 a) deletion of one arm of 5th autosome , 92 d) non- disjunction 93 b) numerical disorder, 94 c) structural disorder95a) Mutation96 a) Haemophilia 97 b) Phenylketonuria, 98 d) super female,99 b) Klinefelter’s syndrome 100 b) chromosomal abnormalities.
B. Fill in the blanks
Q. 1) In DNA, damage and errors causes___________
a) Mutation b) DNA repair c) Translation d) Transcription
Q.2) ---------------- was develop DNA fingerprinting.
a) Alec Jeffery b) James Watson c) Khorana d) Francies Crick
Q.3)For invention of PCR-------------got Nobel prize.
a)Alec Jeffreys b) Karl B. Mullis c) Paul Berg d) H.O. Smith
Q.4) Somatic mutation occurs is-------- body cells.
a)reproductive b) non-reproductive c) both a and b d) none of the above
Q.5) In human babies in chromosome no.5 loss of short arm produces-----------syndrome.
a) Down’s syndrome b) turner’s syndrome c) Cry- du- chat d) none of the above.
Q.6) The technique of------------- used to make numerous copies of specific segment of DNA quickly and accurately.
a)Transcription b) translation c) PCR d ) ligase chain reaction
Q.7) The technique used for DNA fingerprinting is--------------
a) Northern blotting b) western blotting c) Southern blotting d)none of the above
Q.8) The diploid with one extra chromosome are called----------------
a) Trisomics b) tetrasomics c) double tetra somics d) none of the above
Q.9) Monosomy is detected by------------.
a) 2n+1 b) 2n-1 c) n-1 d) 2n-2
Q.10 Trisomy in 21 no. of chromosome in humans causes-------------.
a) Patau’ssyndrome b) Down’s syndrome c) Turner’s syndrome d) none of the above
Q.11) A point mutation that change a codon specifying an amino acid into a stop codon is called------------
a)Frameshift mutation b) missense mutation c)nonsense mutation d)deletion mutation
Q,12 ) Sickle cell anaemia is caused by----------
a)Frameshift mutation b) Missense mutation c)Nonsense mutation d) Point mutation
Q.13) Addition and deletion ofnucleotide to a DNA sequence occurs in ----------
a)Frameshift mutation b) Missense mutation c)Nonsense mutation d) Point mutation
Q.14) Mutation occurs through mutagenic agent are---------------- mutation.
a) a) Substitution mutation b) Missense mutation c)Induced mutation d) point mutation.
Q.15) Extra chromosome on diploids are called ---------
a) Trisomic b) Tetrasomic c) Nulliysomy d) none of the above
Q.16) A chromosome pair is loses by the organism-----------.
a) Trisomic b) Tetrasomic c) Nullisomy d) none of the above
Q.17) Tandem duplication creates
a) Buckling b) Loopingc) Hairpin d) Loop with turn
Q.18) Reverse Tandem Duplication creates
a) Buckling b)Loopingc) Hairpin d) Loop with turn
Q.19) Polymerase chain Reaction is-----------.
a) DNA repair technique, b) DNA amplification technique, c) DNA degradation technique
(d) All of the above
Q.20)The source of Thermus aquatics is _________.
(a) Vent polymerase (b) Taq polymeras (c) Primase enzyme
(d) Both a and c
Q.21 ) For the process of polymerase chain reaction are primer used is ________.
(a) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide
(b) Single-stranded RNA oligonucleotide
(c) Double-stranded DNA oligonucleotide
(d) Double -stranded RNA oligonucleotide
Q.22) Annealing of DNA and primer take place in-------------temperature.
a) 74°C b) 96° c) 42°C d) 54°C
Q.23) PCR uses--------------- in Reverse transcription.
(a) DNA as a template to form ssDNA
(b) mRNA as a template to form cDNA
(c) RNA as a template to form DNA
(d) All of the above
24)---------------- is not a point mutation?
a) Insertion b) Substitutionc) Transpositiond) Transversion
Q.25) Insertion of 3 bases have minimum effect in--------------mutation
a) point mutation b) chromosomal mutation
c) Induced mutation d) Frame shift Mutation
Q.26) Wooble base recognition of the tRNAs in translation ignores--------the mutation?
a) Silent b) Frame shift c) Sense d) Neutral
Q.27) In genome total number of transition take place is--------.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d)8
Q.28) Sense mutation result into ----------
a) Down’s syndromeb) Sickle cell anaemia
c) Thalassemiad) Patau’s syndromes
Q.29) An organism that has lost a chromosome pair are------------.
a) Monosomic b) Trisomic c) Nullisomic d) none of the above.
Q.30) Dipoid cell is treated with colchicine then it becomes-----------
a) Diploid b) Monoploid c) Triploid d) Tetraploid
Answers
B. Fill in the blanks
Q.1 a) Mutation,2b) Alec Jeffery, 3 b) Karl B. Mullis, 4b) non-reproductive, 5 c) Cry- du- chat, 6 c) PCR, 7 c) Southern blotting, 8 a) Trisomics, 9 b) 2n-1, 10 b) Down’s syndrome ,
11 c)nonsense mutation 12 d) point muatation Q.13 a)Frameshift mutation,;Q.14 c)Induced mutation Q.15 a) Trisomic, 16 c) nullisomy , 17 a) Buckling, 18 c) Hairpin, 19 b) DNA amplification technique 20 (b) Taq polymeras, 21(a) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide 22)d) 54°C, 23 (b) mRNA as a template to form cDNA,; 24 c) Transposition, 25 d) Frame shift Mutation 26 a) Silent, 27 b) 4, 28 c) Thalassemia, 29 c) Nullosomic, 30 d) tetraploid .
C. True and False
Q.1.) All types of mutations are transferable among generations.
a) True
b) False
Q.2) X-rays are physical mutagen
a) True
b) false
Q.3) Ethyleneimine are Not chemical mutagen.
a) true
b) false
Q. 4)The process of sudden change in the genetic material of an individual is called a mutation
a) true
b) false
Q.5) Within the genome mutation occurs at random basis.
a) true
b) false
Q. 6 By the mutation repair system detection of mismatches and fidelity of replication is maintained
a) True
b) False
Q.7) Mutations in both somatic and germ cells can be catastrophic.
a) True
b) False
Q.8) Mutation is the main cause of diversity among organism.
a) True
b) false
Q.9) Germ line mutations occur in the eggs and sperm and can be passed on to offspring.
a) True
b) False
Q.10) Trisomy of 21th chromosome leads to Down syndrome.
a) True
b) False
Q.11) Mutation caused by ionising radiation and non-ionising radiation are called as chemical mutation.
a) True
b) False
Q.12) To normalize western blot data housekeeping protein is used.
a) True
b) false
Q.13) To get quantitative western blotting data we must use fluorescent- lable antibodies.
a) True b) False
Q.14) Northern blotting technique is a variant of Southern blotting technique.
a) True b) False
Q.15) Ligands are used to facilitate protein-ligand interactions in the blotting technique.
a) True b) False
Q.16) Lectine are antibodies, which is used to identifyGlycoprotein.
a)True b) False
Q.17) PCR technique NOT used for DNA cloning.
a) True b) False
Q.18) Polypoide species formed by multiplication of chromosome sets of hybrid of two or more different genera ,species arecalled as Allopolyploidy.
a) True b) False
Q.19) Mutation occurs due to exposer of organism to mutagenic agent are called as Induced mutation.
a) True b) False
Q.20) In man deletion of 5th chromosome results in klinfelters syndrome.
a) True b) False
C. Answers of true and false questions
1 a) false, 2 a) True 3 b) false , 4 a) true 5 b) false, 6 a) True, 7 a) True, 8 a) True, 9 a) True, 10 a) True , 11 b) false, 12) b false 13b) False, 14 a) True, 15 a) True, 16a)True , 17 b) False, 18 a) True 19 a) True, 20 b) False
D. Answers in one sentence
Q.1) What is probe?
Q.2)which filter paper is used for Northern blotting Technique
Q.3) How many types of excision repair systems are known
Q.4) How many DNA duplexes are obtained from one DNA duplex after 4 cycles of PCR
Q.5) What is deletion?
Q.6) what is Duplicaion?
Q.7) What is trisomy?
Q.8) What is Tetrasomy?
Q.9) What is DNA fingerprinting?
Q.10) What is blotting Technique?
Q.11) What is polymerase chain Reaction?
Q.12) What is Tandom Duplication?
Q.13) What is Transposed Duplication?
Q.14) what the four types of chromosomal Mutation?
Q.15) Give any two significance of Inversion.
Q.16) Give examples of physical mutagen.
Q.17) Give example of chemical mutagen.
Q.18) In Patau’s syndrome trisomy found in which chromosome number?
Q.19) What are the types of Translocation?
Q.20) what are the significance of Duplication?
Q.21) Give types of polyploidy.
Q.22) which technique used for DNA fingerprinting?
Q.23) Give example of natural base analogs.
Q.24) Give example of Artificial base analogs.
Q.25) What is mean by Terminal mutation?
Q.26) What is Interstitial Deletion?
Q.27) Deficiency in short arm of human chromosome V result in which syndrome?
Q.28) what is mean by Pericentric Inversion?
Q.29) Shift translocation means?
Q.30) Reciprocal Translocation means.
q.31)What is mean by simple translocation?
Q.32) Monoploidy means.
Q.33)What is the use of Haploidy?
Q.34) Annealing means?
Q.35)What is Minisatellite?
Q.36) What is mean by Mutation?
Q.37)What is mean by GENE Amplification?
Q.38) what is DNA repair?
Q.39) What is Northern botting Tecqnique?
Q.40)what is southern blotting Technique?
Q.41)What are the four chromosomal abnormalities?
Q.42 ) Why structural chromosomal abnormalities occurs?
Q.43) Mental retardation stage found in child due to which syndrome?
Q.44) How chromosome represent in klinfelter syndrome?
Q.45) Number of chromosomefound in child with Down syndrome is?
q.46 ) Down syndrome is caused due to?
Q.47)Which is the DNA repair mechanism is called as ‘ cut and Patch ‘ mechanism?
Q.48)Which enzyme is involve in base excision repair?
Q.49)In which repair mechanism will remove uracil and add correct base?
Q.50) In what type of mutation an alternation in a nucleotide sequence that changes a triplet coding for an amino acid into a termination codon ?
D. Answers of one sentence
(ANSWERS)
1) Short piece of labelled DNA
2) Aminobenzyl-oxymethyl filter paper,
3) Two type
4) 16
5) Loss of broken part of chromosome is called deletion.
6) Addition of a part of chromosome is called Duplication.
7) The diploid organism which have one extra chromosome are called trisomy.
8)When one chromosome of the diploid organism is present four times,it result into tetrasomy. (2n+2)
9)DNA fingerprinting is the method of isolating and making image of sequence of DNA.
10) Technique is used to detect desired m-RNA or DNA or proteins from cells by blotting on nitrocellulose filter membrane.
11)PCR is a scientific technique in molecular biology used to generate billions of copies of particular DNA in short time or it also in vitro technique of gene amplification.
12) Duplication in which added segment has the same genetic sequence as in present in the original state of chromosome, however the added segment lies next to the original segment.
13) In this type of duplication the portion of chromosome becomes attached to some non-homologous chromosome.
14) There are four different types of chromosomal mutations: Deletions, Translocations, Duplications and Inversions
15) a) Inversion help in establishing species relation of Drosophila
b) It help in origin of new species.
16) X-rays, gamma rays, Beta rays , neutrons and UV radiation.
17) Ethyleneimine, nitogen mustard sulpharmustard, dimethylnitrosamine Nitrosoguanidine, Metyl meathane sulphonate, hydrazine etc.
18) Patau’s syndrome is caused due to trisomy in 13th Chromosome.
19) Simple translocation, shift translocation and reciprocal translocation.
20) a)Duplication areplay significant role in evolution.
b)Duplication are more frequent and less deleterious.
21) Depending upon the source of additional chromosome set, polyploids are two types --- autopolyploidy and allopolyploidy.
22) DNA finger printing involves a number of techniques such as gel electrophoresis, southern blotting, autoradiography and probe hybridization.
23) 5- methyl cytosine, 5-hydoxymethyl cytosine, 6-methyl purine 24) 5-bromouracil, 5-iodouracil and 5-methyl-cytocine 25) Small piece of terminal end of chromosome is lost.
26) If the two break occur at any two points, it result in the lossof an intercalary segment of chromosome.
27) Cri-du-chat Syndrome
28) The inverted segment contain the centromere.
29) An interstitial segment of one chromosome is broken off and inserted interstially in another non-homologous chromosome.
30) A segment from one chromosome was exchanged with a segment from another chromosome.
31) A single break in chromosome.
32) A organism contain only one set of chromosome.
33)It is used to study role of individual chromosome.
34) Annealing is the pairing of primers to the ssDNA segment.
35) In DNA fingerprinting, a non-coding region of genome having tandem repeats of a sequence.
36) Mutation is a change occurs in DNA sequences.
37) It is obtaining multiple copies of known DNA sequence that contain gene.
41) Trisomy 18, trisomy 13,turner’s syndrome, klinefelter syndrome.
42) structural chromosomal abnormalities is occurs due to breakage and incorrect rejoining of chromosomal segment.
43) Down syndrome.
44 ) (44 + XXY)
45) 47
46) chromosomal abnormalities
47) Nucleotide Excision Repair
48)DNA glycosylase and AP endonuclease
49) Base excision repair
50) Point mutation or nonsense mutation.
E. Terminology
1.Mutation: Change in DNA sequence.
2. Tautomerism: The ability of molecule to exist in more than one chemical form is called Tautomerism.
3. Frame shift Mutation: The mutation caused by the addition or deletion of nitrogenous bases in DNA or mRNA are known as frame shift mutation.
4. Deletion mutation: These mutations are caused by loss or deletion of one or more nucleotides.
5.Insertion Mutation: These mutation are caused by addition of one or more extra nucleotides in a DNA molecule at one or more places.
6. Chromosomal aberrations: The change in the genome involving chromosome parts, whole chromosome or whole chromosomal set.
7. Deletion: Loss of broken part of chromosome is called deletion.
8. Duplication: Addition of a part of chromosome is called Duplication.
9.Inversion: sometimes the numberof gene in a chromosome is not changed but the sequence of genes is altered by the rotation of gene block within a chromosome by 1800.
10. Translocation: Sometimes the broken segment of a chromosome become attached to a non-homologous chromosome resulting in new linkage relation. This type of rearrangement of genes is called translocation.
11. Tandem Duplication: In Tandem Duplication the added segment has the same genetic sequence as is present in the original state in the chromosome.
12.Base analog : It is mutagenic only for replicating DNA while acridine dye, alkylating, and deaminating agents are mutagenic to both replicating and non-replicating DNA.
13. Reverse tandem duplication: the sequence gene in the duplicated region of chromosome is just the reverse of the normal sequence.
14. Displaced duplication: In this case the duplicated region is not situated adjacent to the normal section. Depending on whether, the duplicated portion is on the same side of the chromosome as the original section or the other side.
15. paracentric Inversion; when both the breaks in the chromosome occure on the same side of the centromere and inverted segment includes no centromere, then such typre of inversion is called paracentric inversion.
16. Pericentric Inversion: the inverted segment contain the centromere that is involve one break on either side of the centromere.
17. Euploidy: An organism either looses a complete set of chromosome or aquires one or more additional sets of chromosomes.
18. Monoploidy/ haploidy: The organism contain only one set of chromosome per cell ehich is called basic number (X) of the genome.
19. Polypoidy: Organism with more than two sets of chromosome are called polyploids.
20. Autopolypoidy: the chromosome set or sets of the same species(Homologous) is added to diploid genome.
21. Allopolyploidy: Allopolyploidy are polyploidy species formed by multiplication of chromosome sets of hybrid of two or more different genera, species or subspecies.( In this type non homologous chromosome are involved)
22. Aneuploidy: It is the addition or loss of one or more chromosome to the complete diploid chromosome complement of an organism.
23. Point Mutation: any physical and chemical change in the organisation of the gene at molecular level.
24. Monosomy: there is loss of one chromosome from the complete diploid set that is their general chromosome formula 2n-1.
25. Nullisomy: Nullisomics(2n-20 are diploid in which a homologous pair of chromosome is missing.
26. Chromosomal Mutation; This type of mutation is characterized as a gross morphological change in the structure of the chromosome.
27.Spontaneous (natural) mutation: The mutation which occur without a known cause called as spontaneous mutation.
28. somatic mutation: Mutation occurring in non-reproductive body cells called as somatic mutation.
29. Gametic Mutation: Mutation occurring in game tic cells.
30. Induced mutation: Induced mutations are those mutations which occur due to exposure of organism to mutagenic agent.
31. Transition: transition are changes that involve replacement of purine in polynucleotide chain by another purine .
Unit No. V
Biotechnology
- Multiple Choice Questions
- In which of the following industrial areas biotechnology is applicable?
- Environment
- Agriculture
- Health Care
- All of the above
- The organization whose genetic material has been altered using genetic engineering is called as
- Genetically modified organism
- Genetically mutant organism
- Genetically modern organism
- Genetically transferred organism
- Full form of GMO is—
a) Genetically mutant organism
b) Genetically modified organism
c) Genetically modern organism
d) Genetically transferred organism
- Which of the following techniques use genes and DNA molecules for diagnosis of diseases?
- Gene therapy
- Recombinant gene technology
- Polymerase chain reaction
- All of the above
- The animals whose genome is altered by introduction of transgene is known as
- Hybrid animals
- Modified animals
- Transgenic animals
- Cross breed animals
- Which is the most common plasmid used for most of genetically engineered product?
- CaMV195
- PBR322
- R plasmid types
- Both b & C
- The main use of recombinant DNA technology are
- The creation of cells capable of synthesizing economically important molecules
- Production of transgenic humans
- The efficient reduction of useful proteins
- Both a& c
- What was the world’s first ever mammal to be successfully cloned from an adult cell?
- Sheep
- Monkey
- Cow
- Calf
- The transgenic animals are those which have
- Foreign DNA in some of their cells
- Foreign DNA in all of their cells
- Foreign RNA in all of their cells
- Both a and c
- There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for?
- Coli
- Colon
- Coelom
- Coenzyme
- Which enzyme is useful in genetic engineering?
- DNAase
- Amylase
- Lipase
- Restriction endonuclease
- Which is related to genetic engineering?
- Plastid
- Plasmid
- Heterosis
- Mutation
- Which of the following enzyme joints the okazaki fragments?
- DNA Polymerase
- DNA ligase
- Helicase
- Restriction endonuclease
- Which of the following features should be present in vector?
- It should replicate autonomously
- It should have its own origin of replication
- It should possess restriction enzyme cleavage sites
- All of these
- Which of the following is a genetic vector
- Plasmid
- Cosmid
- Phage
- All of these
- Which of the following is related to genetic engineering
- Endoplasmic reticulum
- Golgi body
- Mitochondrion
- Plasmid
- Which of the following tool makes possible genetic engineering?
- DNA polymerase
- RNA polymerase
- Helicase
- Restriction endonuclease
- A recombinant DNA Molecule is produced by
- Joining of two DNA fragments
- Joining of two or more DNA fragments
- Both a & b
- Joining of two or more DNA fragments originating from different organisms
- The gene formed by the joining of DNA segments from two different sources are called as..
- Recombinant gene
- Joined gene
- Both a & b
- Chimaeric gene
- Which of the following enzyme is used to cut DNA molecule in rDNA technology
- Phosphatase
- Ribonuclease
- Restriction enzymes
- Ligase
- Restriction enzymes are also called as
- Biological scissors
- Molecular scalpels
- Molecular knives
- All of these
- The most important discovery that lead to the development of rDNA technology was
- Double helix model of Watson & crick
- Discovery of restriction enzymes
- Discovery of ligase enzymes
- Discovery of plasmids
- Who discovered restriction enzymes
- Nathan, Arber & Smith in 1970
- Watson, Crick & Wilkins in 1970
- Boyer & Cohen in 1975
- Paul Berg in 1975
- Who created the first rDNA molecule
a) Nathan, Arber & Smith
b) Watson, Crick & Wilkins
c) Boyer & Cohen
d) Paul Berg
- The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called
- Carrier
- Vector
- Transformer
- None of these
- The DNA segment to be cloned is called
- Gene segment
- DNA fragment
- DNA insert
- All of these
- Which of the following statements are true regarding rDNA technology
- rDNA technology is used to obtain large number of copies of specific DNA fragments
- rDNA technology is used to obtain large quantities of protein produced by the concerned gene
- rDNA technology is used to integrate gene of interest into chromosomes where it expresses itself
- All of these
- The plasmid used by Cohen and Boyer for their transformation experiment was
- pSC 101
- PUC 17
- pBR 322
- E.Coli plasmids
- Gene cloning refers to the
- Production of large number of copies of the gene being cloned
- Production of asexual progeny from a single individual or a cell
- Both a & b
- None of these
- Paul Berg’s gene splicing experiment created the first rDNA molecule which was a
- A T4 phage fragment incorporated into SV40 vector
- A lambda phage fragment incorporated into SV40 vector
- A T4 phage fragment incorporated into pSC 101 vector
- A lambda phage fragment incorporated into pSC 101 vector
- A vector should have which of the following properties
i) MCS; ii) Small size; iii) Multiple ori; iv) Low replication speed
- i, ii,iii
- ii, iii,iv
- i, ii,iv
- i,iii,iv
- Which of the following is not a restriction endonuclease?
- Eco RI
- DNA ligase
- Hind III
- Bam H1
- The uptake of plasmid DNA into bacterial cell is facilitated in the presence of
- Calcium Chloride
- Magnesium Chloride
- Potassium Chloride
- All of these
- Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its
- Low thermal stability
- High fidelity
- High speed
- High thermal stability
- Which of the following enzyme is used to synthesize DNA using an mRNA template
- Taq Polymerase
- Alkaline Phosphatase
- Reverse transcriptase
- Nuclease
- Which type of restriction enzymes are commonly used in rDNA technology
- Type I
- Type II
- Type III
- Type IV
- Which is the enzyme used to remove phosphate group from the 5’end of the DNA
- Restriction enzymes
- Alkaline phosphatase
- Polynucleotide kinase
- Ribonuclease H
- The enzyme that adds mononucleotide triphosphates to the 3’OH group of a DNA fragment is
- Polynucleotide kinase
- Terminal nucleotidyl transferase
- Terminal phosphoryl transferase
- All of these
- The RNA strand in the RNA-DNA hybrid is removed by
- RNase
- RNase-H
- Nuclease
- None of these
- Klenow is the product of enzymatic breakdown of
- DNA polymerase I
- DNA polymerase II
- DNA polymerase III
- RNA polymerase
- Selective degradation of single stranded DNA is carried out by the enzyme
- Nuclease
- Ribonuclease
- SI nuclease
- Deoxy ribonuclease
- Which of the following is an RNA dependent DNA synthetase
- DNA polymerase I
- DNA polymerase II
- Reverse transcriptase
- All of these
- Which of the following is a thermo stable DNA polymerase
- Taq polymerase
- Vent polymerase
- Pfu polymerase
- All of these
- Which of the following statement is true
- A vector should have an origin of replication
- A vector should have selectable markers
- A vector should have unique restriction sites
- All of these
- Expression vectors differ from a cloning vector in having
- An origin of replication
- Suitable marker genes
- Unique restriction sites
- Control elements
- The first engineered plasmid vector is
- pBR322
- pUC vectors
- pSC 101
- pUC19
- The most popular and widely used engineered plasmid vector is
- pBR322
- pUC vectors
- pSC 101
- pUC19
- In pBR322, pBR stands for
- Plasmid bacterial
- Plasmid bacterial
- Plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez
- Plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez
- Phage M13 vectors are widely used for
- Obtaining single stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA Sequencing
- Obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA Sequencing
- Obtaining fragments of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing
- Obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for electrophoresis
- Cosmid is a plasmid with
- A minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site
- A minimum of 250 bp of M13 DNA that includes cos site
- A minimum of 100 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site
- A minimum of 250 bp of T4 phage DNA that includes cos site
- Vectors designed to replicate in cells of two different species are called
- Phasmids
- Transfer vectors
- Shuttle vectors
- Phagemids
- Autonomously replicating sequences (ARS) is a characteristic feature of
- Plasmid vectors
- Phage vectors
- E.coli vectors
- Yeast vectors
- Which of the following are vectors for animals
- SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors
- CMV vectors and Gemini vectors
- Lambda phage and M13 phage vectors
- All of the above
- The vectors commonly used for sequencing human genome
- Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)
- Plasmid
- CMV vectors
- M13 vectors
- Ti plasmids that is used as a plant vector is obtained from
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- Agrobacterium rhizhogenes
- Agrobacterium radiobactor
- Thermus aquaticus
- The virus mediated gene transfer using genetically modified bacteriophages is called
- Transfection
- Transduction
- Transformation
- Conjugation
- Ti plasmid vectors include
- Binary vectors and cointegrate vectors
- cointegrate vectors & multiple vectors
- Multiple vectors & binary vectors
- Ti plasmid based vector
- Chemicals used for gene transfer methods include
- Poly ethylene glycol
- CaCl2
- Dextran
- All of the above
- Introduction of DNA into cells by exposing to high voltage electric pulse is
- Electrofusion
- Electrofisin
- Electrolysis
- Electroporation
- The transformation method that uses tungsten or gold particle coated with DNA accelerated at high velocity is called
- Acceleration method
- High velocity method
- Particle gun delivery method
- DNA particle delivery method
- DNA solution injected directly into the cell using micromanipulators is called
- Macroinjection
- Micromanipulator mediated DNA delivery
- Microfection
- Microinjection
- What is the final product of the RNaseH method?
- Blunt ended dsDNA
- Staggered dsDNA at both ends
- Staggered dsDNA at 3’end
- Staggered dsDNA at 5’end
- Single stranded unpaired extensions formed by restriction enzyme upon cleavage is called
- Blunt ends
- Flush ends
- Sticky ends
- None of these
- Type II cuts the sequence in the following way as
- Within the recognition sequence
- At 100-1000 nucleotides away from the recognition sequence
- At 27-30 nucleotides away from the recognition sequence
- It cuts randomly
- Which of the following enzyme protect a DNA strand from cleavage restriction enzymes of the host bacterium?
- Restriction endonuclease
- Restriction exonuclease
- Methyl transferase
- Polynucleotide kinase
- The co-factor required for the T4 DNA ligase enzyme is
- ATP
- GTP
- NAD+
- FAD+
- Recombinant plasmids are added to a bacterial culture that has been presented with…ions
- Iodine
- Magnesium
- Calcium
- Ferric
- The sites of DNA where restriction enzyme act are generally
- Palindromic
- Tandem repeats
- CG rich regions
- TATA boxes
- It was found that Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs. This specific base sequence is known as the
- Recognition sequence
- Restriction endonuclease
- Palindromic nucleotide sequence
- Nucleases
- E.coli cloning vector pBR322 contains restriction sites (Hind III,Eco RI, Bam HI, Sal 1,
Puu II, Pst L, Cla 1), Ori, amp R, tet B and rop, Rop codes for the
- Antibiotic resistance gones
- Foreign DNA
- Selection of recombinants from non-recombinants
- Proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid
- The technique of insertion of a desired gene into DNA of plasmid vector is
- Gene splicing
- Gene dressing
- Gene cloning
- Gene drafting
- Plasmids that carry genes to provide resistance to antibiotics are called
- R plasmids
- C plasmids
- A plasmids
- Ti plasmids
- DNA of plasmid is
- Double stranded & circular
- Single stranded & circular
- Double stranded & linear
- Single stranded & linear
- Which of the following enzyme would you select for protecting a DNA strand from cleavage by restriction enzymes of the host bacterium?
- Restriction endonuclease
- Restriction exonuclease
- Methyl transferase
- Polynucleotide kinase
- If you want to radiolabel a DNA strand using p32,which of the following is the most suited enzyme for that purpose?
- DNA polymerase
- Reverse transcriptase
- Polynucleotide kinase
- Terminal necleotydyl transferase
- Which of the following polymerase enzyme would you select for cDNA synthesis?
- DNA polymerase
- Taq polymerase
- Reverse transcriptase
- Vent polymerase
- If you have two DNA fragments A and B, both with blunt ends, in order to make it sticky which enzyme would you select for homopolymer tailing?
- DNA polymerase
- Terminal Nucleotydyl transferase
- Alkaline phosphatase
- Reverse transcriptase
- Once the two fragments are joined, the final sealing phosphodiester bond is formed by
- Polymerase
- Exonuclease
- Transcriptase
- Ligase
- Which of the following enzyme would you select for cutting a DNA strand with recognition sequence “GAATTC”?
- T4 ligase
- Taq polymerase
- Eco R1
- Alu1
- Which of the following enzyme groups would you select for cDNA synthesis?
- Reverse transcriptase, Ribonuclease H and DNA polymerase
- DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
- DNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase and alkaline phosphatase
- Ribonuclease H, reverse transcriptase and methyl transferase
- Taq polymerase require
- A free end for adding complementary nucleotides
- A free 3-OH end for adding complementary nucleotides
- A free 5-P end for adding complementary nucleotides
- Adds complementary nucleotides to both 3’OH end and 5’P end
- For cloning, restriction enzymes with sticky ends are used for
- Ease of transformation
- Easy insertion into plasmids of DNA segments from different sources
- Easy identification of plasmids with antibiotic resistance
- Easy identification of plasmids having inserts
- The host controlled restriction is a process associated with
- Gene of interest
- Bacteria
- Plasmid
- Viruses
- How many bases does the sequence which identifies the restriction enzymes contain?
- 1
- 4
- 6
- 12
- The restriction enzymes bind to and cut the sequences of DNA which usually are
- Antiparallel
- Not symmetrical about the midpoint
- Symmetrical about the midpoint
- Random sequences
- In bacteria, the restriction phenomena occurs naturally as
- Bacteria produces enzyme
- For survival
- For efficient cloning
- Destruction of DNA of the bactrium
- Restriction enzymes are isolated from
- Virus
- Fungi
- Protozoa
- Bacteria
- For the production of a DNA copy, the enzyme which uses RNA is called
- DNA polymerase
- RNA polymerase
- DNA ligase
- Reverse transcriptase
- This was the first restriction endonuclease that was discovered
- BamHI
- EcoRI
- Hind III
- Hind II
- This is not a cloning factor
- pUC19
- SV40
- EST
- M13
- The Taq DNA polymerase is DNA polymerase _________ enzyme from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
- I
- II
- III
- Klenow fragment
- Which of the following statement is not true in case of DNA Polymerase- Reverse transcriptase?
- Involved in the replication of bacteriophage
- Uses RNA as a template
- Used in complementary DNA cloning
- Synthesizes DNA from RNA
- The restriction endonuclease has a defense mechanism in the bacterial system against foreign DNA such as viruses. But how can it protect its DNA?
- Precisely in the middle of the chain
- Anywhere in the chain
- The ends of the chain
- Only within the polynucleotide chain, not at the ends
- The restriction endonuclease has a defense mechanism in the bacterial system against foreign DNA such as viruses. But how can it protect its DNA?
- By methylation of bacterial DNA by restriction enzyme
- By methylation of foreign DNA by restriction enzyme
- By phosphorylation of bacterial DNA by restriction enzyme
- By phosphorylation of foreign DNA by restriction enzyme
- After cleaving the sequence, the nature of the ends created by the type II endonuclease is __________
- The ends created are always single-stranded
- The ends created are always double-stranded
- Either the ends are single-stranded, or they are double-stranded
- One end is single-stranded, and one end is double-stranded
- Which of the following is the correct terminology of a restriction enzyme obtained from the first activity of strain R of Escherichia coli?
- EcoR1
- EscRI
- EcorI
- EcoRI
- If only one bond is broken in the sugar-phosphate backbone, it is called as ___________
- Gap
- Nick
- Break
- Leakage
- The ligation reaction is more efficient, in which case?
- Blunt end ligation
- Sticky end ligation
- Both have the same efficiency
- Depends on the reaction conditions
- The sticky ends are held together by which type of bonds?
- Hydrogen bond
- Covalent bond
- Ionic bond
- Van-der-Waal forces
100.Topoisomerase is also an enzyme that is used for carrying out ligation. The correct
statement for topoisomerase is?
a) They act only on double-stranded molecules
b) They alter the degree of supercoiling of DNA molecules
c) They are less effective than conventional DNA ligase
d)There are three types of topoisomerases
- Restriction enzymes belong to class of enzymes:
- Peptidase
- Amylase
- Lipases
- Nucleases
- Restriction Enzymes were primarily used as :
- Defence by Protozoa against antibiotics
- Tool by Virus to cleave Bacterial genome
- Defence by Bacteria against bacteriophages viruses
- All of the above
- The recognition sites for restriction enzymes are :
- Tautomer
- Pallindrome
- Metamere
- Acronym
- In the case of blunt-end ligation, blunt ends can be generated by ___________
- simply the action of restriction endonuclease which gives straight ends
- the polishing of staggered ends
- both the action of restriction endonuclease which gives straight ends and polishing of staggered ends
- by the action of restriction endonuclease which gives staggered ends
- The ligation reaction is more efficient in which case?
- Blunt end ligation
- Sticky end ligation
- Both have the same efficiency
- Depends on the reaction conditions
- How many categories of ligation reaction are there on the basis of ends created?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- In the case of blunt-end ligation, blunt end can be generated by..
- Simply the action of restriction endonuclease which gives straight ends
- The polishing of staggered ends
- Both the action of restriction endonuclease which gives straight ends and polishing of staggered ends
- By the action of restriction endonuclease which gives staggered ends
- Why sticky ended ligations are carried out at temperatures lower than room temperature?
- It is so because the vibrational and kinetic energy of the molecules at room temperature is lower than that of the energy required to break the bonds holding the ends
- The energy required to break the bonds holding the ends is very less than that of the kinetic and vibrational energy at room temperature
- The enzyme carrying out ligation is unstable at low temperature
- The sticky ends created, don’t just relegate at low temperature
- Bacteriophage lambda is having a phage recombination system. Following are the characteristics of this system
- It is used for inserting phage genome into the bacterium
- It is used for inserting bacterial genome into the phage
- The specific site in bacteria is attB and that in phage is attP
- The specific sites in both of them are called as attP
- Which Nucleotide is been modified in DNA by restriction methylase system?
- Adenine
- Guanine
- Thymine
- Cytosine
- Which subunit is responsible for providing specificity to recognize the DNA sequence in the type I restriction enzyme system?
- HsdR
- Hsdr
- HsdM
- HsdS
- Cosmids lack
- Genes coding for viral proteins
- Origin of replication
- Marker genes coding for replication
- Cleavage site for the insertion of foreign DNA
- Cryptic plasmids
- Do not exhibit any phenotypic trait
- Exhibit many phenotypic traits
- Exhibit one phenotypic traits
- Exhibit antibiotic Resistance
- Phagemid consist of
- Plasmid vector carrying lambda phage’s cos site
- Plasmid vector carrying lambda attachment site
- Plasmid vector carrying origin of replication of lambda phage only
- Plasmid vector carrying origin of replication of plasmid only
- Maximum size of foreign DNA that can be inserted into an insertion vector is
- 35 kb
- 18 kb
- 50 kb
- 27 kb
- Plasmids which are maintained as multiple copy number per cell are known as
- Stringent plasmids
- Relaxed plasmids
- Cryptic plasmids
- None of these
- Cosmid vectors are
- plasmids that contain fragment of λ DNA including the cos site
- phages that lack cos site
- plasmids that have no selection marker
- cryptic plasmids
- Size of the DNA that can be packaged into a λ phage is
- 50 kb
- 35-53 kb
- 40-50 kb
- Any size
- Cosmid vectors are used for
- Cloning small fragments of DNA
- Cloning large fragment of DNA
- Cloning prokaryotic DNA only
- Cloning eukaryotic DNA only
- Plasmids which are maintained as limited number of copies per cell are known as
- stringent plasmids
- relaxed plasmids
- cryptic plasmids
- all of these
- Cos site of the cosmids
- consists of 12 bases
- helps whole genome in circularization and ligation
- both (a) and (b)
- contains cleavage site
- M 13 is an example of
a) filamentous phage
b) single stranded DNA vector
- both (a) and (b)
- plasmid
123. Phagemid vectors are
- combination of plasmid and phage λ
- combination of phages and cosmid
c) Phages carrying properties of plasmids
d) All of the above
124. Single stranded vectors are useful
a) for sequencing of cloned DNA
b) for oligonucleotide directed mutagenesis
c) for probe preparation
d) all of the above
125. pBR 322 has/have which of the following selection marker(s)?
a) AmpR
b) TetR
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) KanR
126. Which among the following are the smallest plasmid and an ideal cloning vector?
a)ColE1
b)RP4
c)PUC8
d) F
127.Which of the following is true for a plasmid?
a) Contains an origin of replication
b) Imparts a useful characteristic to the host bacterium
c) Possesses one or more genes
d) Replicates only when the host genome is undergoing replication
128. What are the possible ways through which a plasmid can replicate?
a) Using cell’s own replicative enzymes
b) Carry genes that code for special replicative enzymes
c) Replicate by inserting themselves into a bacterial chromosome
d) Carry genes that codes enzymes
129. What are relaxed plasmids?
a) The ones having copy numbers above 50 per cell
b) The ones that can’t be digested by endonucleases
c) The ones that can’t be isolated
d) The ones present in more than one strains of the same host
130. Which of the following is not a type of plasmid?
a) F
b)R
c)Ti
d) T4
131. Col plasmids are responsible for ______
a) Degrading unusual molecules
b) Taking up colchicine stain
c) Coding for colicins
d) None
132. Ti plasmids are ____ plasmids.
a) Tumor inducing
b) Degradation
c) High copy number
d) Mammalian
133. Which of the following is responsible for the conversion of covalently closed circular DNA to supercoiled DNA of the plasmid?
a) Endonuclease
b) DNA Gyrase
c) Topoisomerase
d) Exonuclease
134. Protection by covalent attachment of proteins in a plasmid, is a method for?
a) increasing the conjugative abilities
b) protection of linear DNA
c) increasing the copy number
d) increasing cloning efficiency
135. Which region of the phage genome is not essential for growth?
a) Between N and Q genes
b) Cohesive sites
c) Recombination and lysogenization
d) Host lysis
136. The main problem in the formation of the chimera Ti plasmid is _____________
a) It is unstable
b) Large size
c) High virulence
d) No unique restriction site
137. Which of the following does not play any role in the infection of plant cell by the Ti plasmid of A. tumefaciens?
a) T-DNA
b) Virulence region
c) Host specificity region
d) 25 base pair repeats
138. Disarming of Ti plasmid is ____________
a) Removal of the Virulence region
b) Removal of the 25 base pair repeats
c) Removal of the T-DNA
d) Removal of the Host specificity region
139. The Ti cloning vector pBIN19 contains which of the following genes?
a) Tetracycline resistant gene
b) Stress resistant gene
c) Kanamycin resistant gene
d) Ampicillin resistant gene
140. Introduction of new gene through Ti plasmid should be done in ____________
a) Fully grown plant
b) A sapling
c) Germ cells
d) Callus
141. 4. In which of the plant is the crown gall disease caused?
a) Leaf
b) Root
c) Stem
d) Branches
142. What are sticky ends?
a) Ends of M13 vector
b) 12 nucleotide stretch in lambda phage
c) The replicated product phage DNA
d) Ends on two sides of origin
143. Approximate size of lambda phage is _______
a) 23 kb
b) 100 kb
c) 49 kb
d) 12 kb
144. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of infection by an M13 phage?
a) Lytic phage
b) Lysogenic phage
c) New phage particles are continually synthesized
d) The DNA is not integrated in host genome
145. Which infection cycle is characterized by retention of the phage DNA molecule in the host bacterium for many thousands of cell division?
a) Lysogenic cycle
b) Lytic cycle
c) Integrative Phase
d) Protein synthesis
146. Which is a reason of instability of phage DNA molecule in the host cell in a lytic cycle?
a) The huge size of phage DNA
b) Inability of replicative enzymes
c) Immediate synthesis of capsid
d) Lytic cycle inefficiency
147. The cycle which is completed quickly in the infection by a phage is ________
a) Lysogenic
b) Lytic
c) Replication
d) Capsid formation
148. Which of the following is an example of head-and-tail bacteriophage?
a) M13
b) Lambda phage
c) Pbr322
d) M16.
149. What is the capsid (protective coat) of the bacteriophage made up of?
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Protein
d) Organic acids
150. Which of the following is not true for a bacteriophage?
a) A very simple structure
b) Consist either DNA or RNA
c) Bacteriophages are viruses
d) Complex structure that infects bacteria
151. F factor integration into the host chromosome is called as __________
a) F’ plasmid
b) F factor and host chromosome recombination
c) Hfr (High frequency of recombination)
d) Recombinant host chromosome
152. The bacteriophage M13 vectors belong to a group of phages called as __________
a) skinny or filamentous phage
b) M phage group
c) single stranded phage
d) double stranded phage
153. lacZ gene present in a Puc series plasmid codes for which of the enzyme?
a) Beta- galactosidase
b) Lactase
c) Amylase
d) Nuclease
154.Polyethylene glycol is
a) Fusogenic chemical
b) Electro fusion stimulant
c) Callus stimulant
d) Differentiation stimulant
155.Monoclonal antibodies are
a) Heterogenous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma cells
b) Homogeous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma cells
c) Both (a)and (b)
d) None of these
156.Natural humoral immune response against a pathogen leads to the production of
a) Polyclonal antibodies
b) Monoclonal antibodies
c) Macrophages
d) None of these
157.The technology used for the production of monoclonal antibodies is
a) Massculture technology
b) Hybridoma technology
c) Suspension culture
d) None of these
158. Hybridoma technology was developed by
a) Kohler and Milstein
b) Khorana and Nirenberg
c) Khorana and Korenberg
d) Beedle and Tautum
159. The hybridomas are made by
a) Fusing T cells with myeloma cells
b) Fusing B cells with myeloma cells
c) Fusing T helper cells with myeloma cells
d) Fusing B memory cells with myeloma cells
160. All are Mabs except
a) Rituximab
b) Transtuzumab
c) Infliximab
d) Tamoxifen
161.Mabs are
a) Specific towards a paratope
b) Specific towards an epitope
c) Specific towards an antigen
d) None of these
162. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding HAT medium
a) HAT medium is a selective medium
b) Aminopterin in the HAT medium blocks de novo pathway of nucleotide synthesis
c) Salvage pathway requires aminopterin and thymidine
d) Hypoxanthine is converted to guanine by HGPRT enzyme
163. HGPRT mutant cells are raised by inducing mutations using
a) 5-bromouracil
b) 8-azaguanine
c) Colchicine
d) 6-methyl isocyanate
164. In hybridoma technology, hybrid cells are selected in
a) MS medium
b) HAT medium
c) x-gal medium
d) Whites mediun
165. Which of the following cell is made deficient of hypoxanthine guanyl phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) enzyme
a) B cells
b) Hybrid cells
c) Myeloma cells
d) None of these
166. Mabs are used in
a) The screening of recombinants
b) diagnostic kits
c) the treatment of many cancers
d) All of these
167.The major hazards of mabs are
a) Difficult in purification
b) Contamination with retroviral particles from mouse myeloma cells
c) Non specificity
d) All of these
168. Mabs are produced by
a) in vivo method
b) Suspended cell culture in fermenters
c) Immobilized cell reactors
d) All of these
Answer Key:
1.d) All of the above; 2.a) Genetically modified organism; 3.b) Genetically modified organism; 4. d) All of the above; 5.c) Transgenic animals; 6.d) Both b & C; 7.d) Both a & c; 8.a) Sheep; 9.b) Foreign DNA in all of their cells; 10.a) Coli; 11.d) Restriction endonuclease; 12.b) Plasmid; 13.b) DNA ligase; 14.d) All of these ; 15.d) All of these; 16.d) Plasmid; 17.d) Restriction endonuclease; 18.d) Joining of two or more DNA fragments originating from different organisms; 19.d) Chimaeric gene; 20.c) Restriction enzymes; 21.a) Biological scissors; 22.b) Discovery of restriction enzymes; 23.a) Nathan, Arber & Smith in 1970; 24.d) Paul Berg; 25.b) Vector; 26.c) DNA insert;27.d) All of these; 28. a) pSC 101; 29. Production of large number of copies of the gene being cloned; 30. b) A lambda phage fragment incorporated into SV40 vector; 31.c) i, ii,iv; 32. DNA ligase; 33.d) All of these; 34.d) High thermal stability; 35.c) Reverse transcriptase; 36. b) Type II; 37. b) Alkaline phosphatase;
38. b) Terminal nucleotidyl transferase; 39.b) RNase-H ;40. a) DNA polymerase I;
41.c) SI nuclease;42.c) Reverse transcriptase; 43.d) All of these; 44.d) All of these;
45.d) Control elements; 46. C) pSC 101; 47.a) pBR322;48.c) Plasmid Boliver and
Rodriguez; 49.a) Obtaining single stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA
Sequencing; 50. a) A minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site;
51. c) Shuttle vectors; 52. d) Yeast vectors; 53. a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine
papillomavirus vectors;54. a) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC);55.a)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens;56.b) Transduction; 57.a) Binary vectors and cointegrate
Vectors; 58. d) All of the above;59.d) Electroporation; 60.c) Particle gun delivery
Method; 61.d) Microinjection; 62.a) Blunt ended dsDNA; 63. c) Sticky ends;
64: a) Within the recognition sequence; 65.c) Methyl transferase; 66.a) ATP;
67.c) Calcium; 68.a) Palindromic; 69.a) Recognition sequence;70.d) Proteins
involved in the replication of the plasmid; 71.c) Gene cloning; 72.a) R plasmids;
73. a) Double stranded & circular; 74. C) Methyl transferase;75.c) Polynucleotide
Kinase;76. c) Reverse transcriptase; 77.b) Terminal Nucleotydyl transferase;
78. d) Ligase; 79.c) Eco R1; 80. a) Reverse transcriptase, Ribonuclease H and DNA
Polymerase;81.b) A free 3-OH end for adding complementary nucleotides;
82.b) Easy insertion into plasmids of DNA segments from different sources;
83.b) Bacteria; 84.c) 6;85.c) Symmetrical about the midpoint;86. Bacteria produces
Enzyme;87. Bacteria; 88.b) RNA polymerase;89.d) Hind II; 90.c) EST;91.a) I ; 92.a)
Involved in the replication of bacteriophage; 93.d) Only within the polynucleotide
chain, not at the ends ; 94.a) By methylation of bacterial DNA by restriction enzyme;
95.c) Either the ends are single-stranded, or they are double-stranded; 96.d) EcoRI;
97.b) Nick; 98.b) Sticky end ligation; 99. a) Hydrogen bond ;100.b) They alter the
degree of supercoiling of DNA molecules;101. Nucleases;102. C)Defence by
Bacteria against bacteriophages viruses; 103.b) Pallindrome;104.c) both the action of
restriction endonuclease which gives straight ends and polishing of staggered ends;
105. b) Sticky end ligation; 106.b) 2; 107.c) Both the action of restriction endonuclease which gives straight ends and polishing of staggered ends ;108. a) It is so because the vibrational and kinetic energy of the molecules at room temperature is lower than that of the energy required to break the bonds holding the ends ; 109.a) It is used for inserting phage genome into the bacterium ; 110. a) Adenine;111.d) HsdS;
112. a) Genes coding for viral proteins; 113.a) Do not exhibit any phenotypic trait;
114.b) Plasmid vector carrying lambda attachment site;115.b) 18 kb;116. b) Relaxed
plasmids;117. a) plasmids that contain fragment of λ DNA including the cos site;
118. b) 35-53 kb;119.b) Cloning large fragment of DNA; 120.a) stringent plasmids;
121. c) both (a) and (b); 122.c) both (a) and (b);123.a) combination of plasmid and
phage λ; 124. d) all of the above; 125.c) Both (a) and (b);126. C) PUC8;
127.d) Replicates only when the host genome is undergoing replication; 128.c)
Replicate by inserting themselves into a bacterial chromosome; 129. a) The ones
having copy numbers above 50 per cell; 130.d) T4; 131.c) Coding for colicins;
132.a) Tumor inducing;133. b) DNA Gyrase;134.b) protection of linear DNA;
135.c) Recombination and lysogenization; 136.d) No unique restriction site;
137.a) T-DNA; 138.c) Removal of the T-DNA; 139.c) Kanamycin resistant gene;
140.d) d) Callus; 141. C) Stem;142.b) 12 nucleotide stretch in lambda phage;
143.c) 49 kb;144.a) Lytic phage;145.a) Lysogenic cycle;146. C) Immediate synthesis
of capsid;147.b) Lytic;148.b) Lambda phage;149.c) Protein; 150.d) Complex
structure that infects bacteria; 151.c) Hfr (High frequency of recombination);
152.a) skinny or filamentous phage;153.a) Beta- galactosidase; 154.a) Fusogenic
Chemical;155. b) Homogeous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma cells;
156.a) Polyclonal antibodies;157. b) Hybridoma technology;158.a) Kohler and
Milstein; 159. b) Fusing B cells with myeloma cells;160. d) Tamoxifen;
161.b) Specific towards an epitope; 162.c) Salvage pathway requires aminopterin and
Thymidine; 163. b) 8-azaguanine; 164.b) HAT medium; 165. c) Myeloma cells;
166. d) All of these; 167. b) Contamination with retroviral particles from mouse
myeloma cells; 168. d) All of these;
- Fill in the blanks:
- ……………………..can be defined as the application to industry of advances made in techniques and instruments from the biological sciences.
- Genetically altered plants, animals, and microorganisms are called __________ organisms.
- A(n)__________ is a cell line used to produce specific antibodies that are created by fusing an antibody-producing lymphocyte with a cancer-causing cell.
- Restriction enzymes were discovered by…………
- Klenow fragment is derived from………
- …………. Are called the molecular scissors
- During genetic engineering ………….enzyme is used to join the segments of DNA
- The Ti plasmid is found in………
- Hybridoma technology is used for synthesizing………
- …….called viruses that attack bacteria
- Answer Key:
Biotechnology; 2. Novel; 3.Hybridoma; 4.Werner arber;5. E. coli Polymerase I DNA-dependent repair enzyme; 6.Restriction enzymes; 7.DNA ligase;8.Agrobacterium tumefaciens;9.Monoclonal antibodies; 10.Bacteriophages
- True and False:
- Ti plasmid is the only known plasmid of plant.
- Beta- galactosidase is one of a series of enzymes involved in the breakdown of lactose to glucose plus galactose. It is normally coded by the gene lacZ, which resides on the E.coli chromosome.
- Blunt ends created by restriction endonuclease can be joined.
- EcoR1 exhibits a two-fold rotational symmetry.
- The low copy number of F plasmid is essential for the stability of these plasmids.
- The DNA to be cloned must be cleaved along with the vector and with the same restriction enzymes.
- Ligation reaction can be both intramolecular and intermolecular in nature.
- E.coli DNA ligase doesn’t require a cofactor
- The binary vector strategy uses two different vectors for the production of the single chimera molecule by recombination.
- Insertion of the T-DNA into the host genome depends on the T-DNA itself.
- Transformants of pBIN19 are selected by growing them in solid agar media with ampicillin.
- Reverse transcriptase synthesizes a DNA molecule from an RNA template.
- Sticky end fragments generated by EcoRI will ligate to any other sticky-end sequence.
- Protoplast fusion is enhanced by the presence of polyethylene glycol.
- Any foreign DNA inserted into a cell will be inherited by that cell's progeny.
- Plasmid replication is dependent on the host cell.
- The full for of pUC is polylinker university cloning.
- Transduction is a phage-mediated genetic transfer.
- Phages are a type of virus that infect bacteria.
- A restriction enzymes cuts at specific sites called restriction sites.
- Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that is found naturally in retroviruses.
- Restriction enzymes are named according to the genus and species of the bacterium from which they are isolated.
- It is easier to make recombinant DNA from blunt-ended DNA fragments than from sticky-ended fragments.
- Molecular Scissors refers to DNA ligases
- Once cosmids are inside the E.coli cells, they don’t generate phage but are propagated as plasmids.
C. Answer Key:
1.False; 2.True; 3.True;4.True;5.True; 6. True;7.True; 8.False;9.False; 10.False; 11. False;
12.True; 13.False; 14.True; 15. False;16.False; 17. False;18.True; 19.True.20.True; 21.True;22.True;23.False; 24.False;25. true
- Answer in One sentence
Q.No. 1. What is mean by Recombinant DNA Technology?
Answer: Recombinant DNA Technology is “the joining together of DNA molecules from different organisms and inserting it into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations that are of value to science, medicine, agriculture and industry.”
Q.No.2. What is Gene splicing?
Answer: A process using recombinant DNA technology to join, by attachment or insertion, a DNA segment from one source to a DNA segment from another source.
OR
The technology of preparing recombinant DNA in vitro by cutting up DNA molecules and splicing together fragments from more than one organism
Q.No.3. What is Gene Cloning?
Answer: Gene cloning is the process in which a gene of interest is located and copied (cloned) out of all the DNA extracted from an organism.
QNo. 4: What is restriction endonucleases?
Answer: Restriction endonuclease also called Restriction enzyme, a protein produced by bacteria that cleaves DNA at specific sites along the molecule.
Q.No.5.What are palindromic nucleotide sequence?
Answer: A palindromic sequence is a sequence of nitrogen bases in a double stranded DNA or RNA, which when read from 5’ end to 3’ end is same as that on the complementary strand read from 3’end to 5’end.
Q.No. 6. What is the role of DNA Ligase?
Answer: DNA Ligases (Joining or Sealing Enzymes) are also called genetic gum.They join two individual fragments of double stranded DNA by forming phosphodiester bonds between them. Thus, they help in sealing gaps in DNA fragments.Therefore, they act as a molecular glue.
Q.No.7. What exonuclease mean?
Answer: An enzyme that breaks down a nucleic acid by removing nucleotides one by one from the end of a chain.
Q.No.8. What is the difference between Endo and Exonucleases?
Answer: Endonucleases and exonucleases are two types of nucleases, which cleave nucleic acids by hydrolyzing the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. Endonucleases cleave the polynucleotide chain in the middle whereas exonucleases cleave the polynucleotide chain at the ends.
Q.No.9. What is DNA polymerases?
Answer: DNA polymerases are a group of enzymes that are used to make copies of DNA templates, essentially used in DNA replication mechanisms. These enzymes make new copies of DNA from existing templates and also function by repairing the synthesized DNA to prevent mutations.
Q.No.10. What is Polymerase?
Answer: An enzyme which brings about the formation of a particular polymer, especially DNA or RNA.
Q.No.11. What is Klenow fragment of DNA Polymerase?
Answer: Klenow Fragment is the large fragment of DNA Polymerase I that retains its 5'→3' polymerase, 3'→5' exonuclease and strand displacement activities. The enzyme lacks the 5'→3' exonuclease activity of intact DNA polymerase I.
Q.No. 12. What is vector and its characteristics?
Answer: Vectors are DNA molecules that are used as a vehicle to carry foreign DNA fragments into other cells where they can replicate and/or express. Among these most commonly used vector is a plasmid.
Q.No.13.What is plasmid?
Answer: A plasmid is a small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that is distinct from a cell's chromosomal DNA. Plasmids naturally exist in bacterial cells, and they also occur in some eukaryotes.
Q.No.14.What is cosmids?
Answer: A cosmid is a type of hybrid plasmid that contains a Lambda phage cos sequence. They are often used as a cloning vector in genetic engineering. Cosmids can be used to build genomic libraries.
Q.No.15. What is the difference between plasmid and cosmid?
Answer: The key difference between plasmid and cosmid is that the plasmid is a double-stranded, circular and closed extra-chromosomal DNA present in bacteria and archaea while the cosmid is a hybrid vector system formed due to combining of the cos sequence of lambda phage and plasmid DNA of bacteria.
Q.No.16.What is mean by somatic cell hybridization?
Answer: Somatic hybridization is the technique that allows manipulation of the cellular genome by a process called protoplast fusion.
Q.No.17. What is bacteriophage?
Answer: A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria.
Q.No.18. What are adaptors and Linkers?
Answer: An adaptor, or a linker in genetic engineering is a short, chemically synthesized, single-stranded or double-stranded oligonucleotide that can be ligated to the ends of other DNA or RNA molecules.
Q.No.19. Define Biotechnology?
Answer: Biotechnology deals with the techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce products that processes useful to humans.
Q.No. 20. What is down stream process?
Answer: Seperation , Purification of the products obtained from recombinant DNA technique is called downstream process (DSP).
Q.No. 21. What is micro-injection?
Amswer: Method of introducing recombinant DNA into host cell using fine needle is called micro-injection.
Q.No.22. What is biolastics or gene gun ?
Answer: Method of introducing recombinant DNA into host cell by bombarding high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
E. Terminology:
Knocked out: To produce roughly or hastily
Splicing: The process by which introns, the noncoding regions of genes, are excised out of the primary messenger RNA transcript, and the exons (i.e., coding regions) are joined together to generate mature messenger RNA.
Hybrid: A thing made by combining two different elements or of mixed character; composed of different elements.
Recombinant: relating to or denoting an organism, cell, or genetic material formed by recombination.
Cloning: Propagate (an organism or cell) as a clone.
OR
Emergence: make an identical copy of.
OR
Replicate (a fragment of DNA placed in an organism) so that there is sufficient to analyse or
use in protein production.
Restriction: The limitation or control of someone or something, or the state of being restricted.
Cleave: Split (a molecule) by breaking a particular chemical bond.
Palindrome: A word, phrase, or sequence that reads the same backwards as forwards
Staggered: Arrange (objects or parts) in a zigzag formation or so that they are not in line.
Cohesive: Characterized by or causing cohesion.
Polymorphism: The condition of occurring in several different forms.
Blunt: Not having a sharp edge or point.
Linker: A thing which links other things.
Nick: A small cut or notch.
Ligation: The joining of two DNA strands or other molecules by a phosphate ester linkage.
Lytic: Relating to or causing lysis.
Exogenous: Having an external cause or origin or growing or originating from outside an
organism.
Immobilized: Prevent (something or someone) from moving or operating as normal.
Protoplasts:
Electroporation: The action or process of introducing DNA or chromosomes into bacteria or other cells using a pulse of electricity to open the pores in the cell membranes briefly.
Hybridization: The process of an animal or plant breeding with an individual of another species or variety.
Somatic Cell: Any cell of a living organism other than the reproductive cells.
Malignant: Very virulent or infectious
Epitope: The part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself.
Hazardous: Risky; dangerous
Transgenic: Relating to or denoting an organism that contains genetic material into which DNA from an unrelated organism has been artificially introduced.
UNIT VI
Immunology
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
- MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The branch of biology involved in the study of immune systems in all organisms is called_________.
a) Botany
b) Microbiology
c) Immunology
d) Biotechnology
2. Which systems protects body against disease-causing microbes?
a) Immune system
b) Digestive system
c) Excretory system
d) Respiratory system
3. Which of the following immunity is called the first line of defence?
a) Innate Immunity
b) Active immunity
c) Passive immunity
d) Acquired immunity
4. The kind of granulocytes which kills the parasites and breaks the inflammatory substances are
a) Basophils
b) Chlorophylls
d) Neutrophils
5. How many types of antibodies are there?
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
6. In cell-mediated immunity which of the following cells are involved?
a) Leukaemia
c) Mast cells
d) Thrombocytes
7. Which of the following cells of the immune system do not perform phagocytosis?
a) Macrophage
b) Neutrophil
c) Eosinophil
8. Which of the following blood proteins can destroy pathogens?
a) Major histocompatibility complex
b) Platelets
c) Fibrinogen
9. What type of B cell respond rapidly post any subsequent encounter with the same antigen?
a) T cells
c) Plasma cells
d) Macrophages
10. Scavenger cells of immune system are
b) T cells
c) B cells
d) Lymphocytes
11. A cell which defends against body against the virus infected cell is
a) Exotoxin
c) Endotoxin
d) Suppressor T cell
12. Which of the following immune response occurs first upon invasion by a virus or bacterium?
a) Activation of killer T lymphocytes
b) Activation of B lymphocytes
d) Mobilization of complement proteins
13. What is true about Passive Immunity?
a) Passive immunity causes reactions
b) Passive immunity develops immediately
c) Passive immunity lasts only for a few weeks or months
14. Which of the following provides the longest-lasting immunity to an infectious agent?
a) Naturally acquired passive immunity
b) Artificially acquired passive immunity
c) Naturally acquired active immunity
d) Artificially acquired Active Immunity
15. Which of the following cells is involved in cell-mediated immunity?
a)B cells
b) T cells
c) Mast cells
d) Thrombocytes
16. Immunity obtained during a lifetime is?
a) Acquired immunity
b)Active immunity
c)Passive immunity
d) None of the above.
17. Which of the following cells of the immune system do not perform phagocytosis?
a) Macrophage
b) Neutrophil
c) Eosinophil
18.Monocytes differentiate into?
a) Mast cell
b) B cell
d) T cell
19. Immunity present by birth is?
b) Active immunity
c) Passive immunity
d) Acquired immunity
20. Neutrophils, basophil, lymphocytes, eosinophil and monocytes are?
a) Physical barrier
c) Cytokine barriers
d) Physiological barriers
21. B-cells and T-cells are two types of cells involved in?
a) Innate Immunity
b) Natural Active immunity
c) Passive immunity
22. Skin, body hair, cilia, eyelashes, the respiratory tract and the gastrointestinal tract are examples of?
b) Cellular barriers
c) Cytokine barriers
d) Physiological barriers
23. Which of the following Cells provide Innate Immunity?
a) Phagocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Natural Killer Cells
24. Precursors for B and T lymphocytes are?
a) Hematopoietic stem cells
b) Germ cells
c) Somatic cells
d) RBC
25. In embryonic stage lymphocytes are produced in ?
a) Spleen
b) Bone marrow
d) Thymus
26. The classical pathway of complement is primarily activated by
a) Microbial surface
b) Cytokines
d) Interferons
27. Which of the following immunoglobulin is present abundantly in Mother’s milk?
a) IgM
b) IgD
c) IgG
28. Transplanted graft is rejected because of
a) Cell-mediated immune response
b) Humoral immune response
c) Innate immune response
d) Adaptive immune response
29. Antibodies are
a) Glycolipids
b) Steroids
c) Lipoproteins
30. Interferons are categorised as
a) Antibiotic proteins
c) Antigen proteins
d) None of the Above
31. Globulins of the blood plasma are responsible for
b) Blood clotting
c) Oxygen transport
d) Cell death
32. Which of the following antibodies is predominantly present in tears, saliva and mucous
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgD
33. Which of the following antibody can cross placenta?
a) IgD
b) IgE
d) IGM
34. Antigen binds in which of the following regions in antibodies?
b) Fc region of an antibody
c) Only in the heavy chain
d) Only in the light chain
35. Which of the following antibody concentration increases during Type I hypersensitivity response?
a) IgD
b) IgM
d) IgA
36. The antibody class found at highest concentrations in serum is______
a) IgD
b) IgM
c) IgA
37.A primary role of antibodies in resistance to bacterial infection is
a) Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
b) Activation of T cell
c)Activation of the alternative complement pathway
d)Opsonisation for increased uptake by phagocytic cells
38.Skin and mucous membrane act as
a) Physiological barrier
c) Metabolic barrier
d) None of the above
39. Light chain and heavy chains are joined with the help of
a) Covalent bond
b) Hydrogen bond
d) Ionic bond
40. The antigen binding site on an antibody is called
a) Antitope
b) Epitope
d) None of the above
41. The hypervariable region is located in
a) N-terminal region of light chain
b) N-terminal region of light and heavy chain
c) C-terminal region of heavy chain
d) C-terminal region of light and heavy chain
42. Fab stands for
a) Fragment antibody binding
c) Fragment antibody or antigen binding
d) None of the above
43. The two identical light chains of an antibody belongs to
- Kappa only
- Lambda only
- Lambda and Kappa Both
- Delta only
44. The hypervariable region of antibody consists of
a) 5-10 aminoacids that form antigen binding site
b) 50-100 aminoacids that form antigen binding site
c) 10-50 aminoacids that forms the antibody binding site
d) A part of constant region of heavy and light chain
45. The ability of antigen to stimulate antibody production is called
a) Affinity
c) Elicitation
d) Metastasis
46. Fc region is involved in
a) Cell surface receptor binding
b) Complement activation
c) Determining diffusivity of antibody molecule
47. An antibody consists of
a) 2 Fab region and 1 Fc region
b) A Fab region and 1 Fc region
c) 2 Fab region and 2 Fc region
d) Many Fab region and many Fc region
48. The complement Pathway is activated by
a) IgM Only
b) IgG only
c) Both IgM and IgG
d) All five classes of antibodies activate complements.
49. Which of the following immunoglobulin has the highest avidity of the immunoglobulins?
a)IgD
b) IgM
c)IgE
d) IgG
50. Which of the following antibody has antigen receptor on B Cells?
a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgD
51. Which of the following is not involved in first line defence?
a)Mucus membranes
b) Saliva
c) Tears
52. Natural killer’s cells are found in all of the following except:
a) Blood
c)Spleen
d)Lymph nodes
53. Artificially acquired passive immunity can be obtained from:
a) Transfer of antibodies from mother to foetus across the placenta
b) Naturally by any disease
c) Injection of the antigen in a vaccination
d)Injection of immunoglobulins
54. Which of the following is not synonymous with the term antibody?
a) Immune globulin
b) Immunoglobulin
d) Microglobulin
55. Which of the following structure is constituted by both light and heavy chains?
b) J-chain binding site
c)Fc Receptor binding site
d) Complement binding site
56. Minimum variability within the antigen binding region of Antibody is found in?
a) Hyper variable region
b) Hinge region
d) CDR
57. Proper hinge region is Absent in which of the following antibody?
a)IgG
b)IgA
c) IgM
d)IgE
58. Any substance or molecule that interact with antibodies are called
a) Antigen
b) Paratope
c) Epitope
59. Antigens are made up of
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Nucleic acids
60. Antigens are mostly
b) Carbohydrates
c) Nucleic acids
d) Lipids
61. A single antigen molecule may be composed of many individual ________.
a)T-cell receptors
b)B-cell receptors
c)MHC II
62. A molecule that reacts with specific antibody but is not immunogenic by itself called
a) Vector
b) Antigen
d) Immunogen
63. Haptens are immunogenic upon binding Covalently to
b) An antibody
c) A paratope
d) None of these
64. Haptens do not activates T cell or B cells because of
a) Its low molecular weight antigens arbuscules
b) Its inability to bind to MHC
d) None of these
65. An antigen is capable of
a) Inducing an immune response
b) Interaction with antibody
c) Induces antibody production
66. Which of the following is a hapten
a) Cyanide
b) Paracetamol
d) Botulin
67. An incomplete antigen
a)Is also called as hapten
b)Is immunogenic upon binding covalently to a carrier protein
c)Cannot induce antibody production by itself
68.Small chemical group on the antigen molecule that can react with antibody
b) Paratope
c) Hapten
d)Allotope
69. Which of the following molecules is the most antigenic?
a) Polysaccharides
b) Lipids
c) Proteins
d) Carbohydrates, protein and lipid
70. Antibody IgM is
a) Pentamer with 10 antigen binding sites
b) Tetramer with 8 antigen binding sites
c) Monomer with 2 antigen binding sites
d) Dimer with 4 antigen binding sites
71. An advantageofELISA in comparison to other biological quantification techniques is?
a) Detects moleculeeven at low concentration
b) Inexpensive
c) High specificity
d) Easily available
72. Which of the following is immobilized on the microtiter well in sandwich ELISA?
a) Sample antibody
c) Secondary antibody conjugated to an enzyme
d) Detection antibody
73. Which of the following molecules can be detected by ELISA?
a) Proteins
b) Hormones
c) Antibodies
74.Naturally acquired active immunity would be most likely acquired through which of the following processes?
a) Vaccination
b) Mother’s milk
c) Natural birth
d) Infection with disease-causing organism followed by recovery
75.Complement component C3 is cleaved by:
a) C3b
b) C3bBb
c) Factor B
d) Factor D
76.The classical and alternative pathways meet at complement component:
a)C4b
b) C4
c) C3
d) C5
77. One principal function of complement is to
a) Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells
b) Cross-link allergens
c) Inactivate perforins
d) Mediate the release of histamine
78. Which of the following pathway is involved in the adaptive immune response?
a) Alternative Pathway
b) Classical Pathway
c) Lectin Binding Pathway
d) All of the above
79. In the classical pathway, the antibody activated the C1 complex consisting of C1q, C1r & C1s subunit. Which of the following subunit binds to the antibody
a) C1q
b) C1r
c) C1s
d) All of the above
80. Which of the following isotype antibody is a potent activator of the classical complement pathway?
a) IgM
b) IgA
c) IgE
d) IgG
81. Which of the following C1 subunit has the catalytic activity that cleaves C4 and C2 complement proteins?
a) C1q
b) C1r
c) C1s
d) None of the above
82. The following proteins are the component of the alternative pathway except:
a) C3
b) Factor B
c) Factor D
d) Properdin
83. Certain microorganism such as Salmonella, Listeria, Neisseria, Cryptococcus consist of specific carbohydrate moieties on the surface antigen that activate
a) Alternative Pathway
b) Classical Pathway
c) Lectin Binding Pathway
d) All of the above
84. Which of the following complement protein polymerizes to form perforin like structure that stabilizes membrane attack complex.
a) C6
b) C7
c) C8
d) C9
85. Which of the following complement component facilitate opsonization and phagocytosis?
a) C3a
b) C3b
c) C5a
d) C5b
86. Complement System Consist of
a) Consist of 20 serum protein
b) Serum protein acts as biological cascade
d) Are set of antibodies
87. Complement system is involved in
a)Specific defence
b) Nonspecific defence
d) Active Immunity
88. In alternate pathway
a)Factor b is involved
b) Factor d is involved
d) None of the Above
89. Biological role of complement system include
a)Cytolysis and chemotaxis
b)Opsonisation
c)Anaphylotoxin and enhanced antibody production
90.Which of the following is required for C1 activation
b) Mg
c)Mn
d)Zn
91. Classical pathway of complement system is activated by
b) antigen
c) antigenic peptides
d) antigens bound to MHC
92. Alternate pathway of complement system is activated by
a) Antibody -antigen complexes
b) Antigen
c) Microorganism or its toxins
d) Antigen bound to MHC
93.Which of the following is the central molecule in complement pathway
a)C1
b) C2
d) C5
94. Cytotoxic T cells which kill their targets
a) Are mostly CD4+
b) Act via perforin and granzyme B
c)Recognise glycolipids in the context of MHC class I molecule
d)Also secrete Il-4 and IL-5
95.T cell receptor is a heterodimer consist of
a) alpha and beta chain
b) gamma and delta chain
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
96. Which of the following is NOT the function of the T-cell receptor
a) Antigen Recognition
b) Facilitate binding of co-receptor
c) Serve as the signal transducer
d) Induce signal transduction via a CD3 protein complex
97. The predominant antibody in saliva is
(a) IgG
(b) IgM
(d) IgD
98. Cells that release histamine and other vasoactive substances in response to allergens are
a) Neutrophils
b) Macrophages
c) NK cells
99. Immunoglobulin that results in histamine release
a) IgG
b) IgA
d) IgD
100. Which type of antigen-presenting molecule is found on all nucleated cells?
a) MHC II
c) antibodies
d) B-cell receptors
101. The life span of white blood cells is
a) Seconds to minutes
Minutes to days
d) None of above
102. The function of white blood cells is to act as an agent in which system of the body?
a) Nervous system
b) Respiratory system
d) Digestive system
103. The eosinophils, neutrophils and basophils are considered as part of
b) Agranulocytes
c) Megakaryocytes
d) Thrombocytes
104. Which of the following cells can be found as tissue residents, meaning they do not have to exit the blood in order to be a part of the immune response?
a) Monocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Neutrophils
d) T cells
105. Which of the following is FALSE about histamine?
a) It is released from granules of cells
b) It causes itching and pain by stimulating nerve endings
c) It is released as part of the adaptive immune response
d) It may be released as part of the allergic response
106.Which of the following is NOT a direct function of antibodies produced during the immune response?
a) Toxin neutralization
b) Opsonization
c) Activation of inflammation
d) Agglutination
107. Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell?
a) Effector
b) Helper
c) Cytotoxic
d) Plasma
108. Features of memory cells include:
a) Faster reaction when infected with the same thing again
b) Constantly create antibodies to ward off infection
c) Survive longer than effector B and T cells
d) A and C are correct
Answer
- Multiple choice Questions
1.(c) Immunology, 2. (a) Immune system, 3. (a) Innate Immunity, 4.(c) Eosinophils, 5.(a) Five, 6.(b) T cells, 7.(d) Basophil, 8. (d) Complement protein, 9.(b) Memory cells, 10.(a) Macrophages, 11.(b) Cytotoxic T cell, 12.(c) The inflammatory response, 13.(d) All of the above. 14.(c) Naturally acquired active immunity, 15.(b) T cells, 16.(a) Acquired immunity, 17. (d) Basophil, 18.(c) Macrophage, 19.(a) Innate Immunity, 20.(b) Cellular barriers, 21. (d) Acquired immunity, 22. a) Physical barrier, 23. d) All of the above, 24.a) Hematopoietic stem cells, 25.(c) Liver, 26. (c) Antibody, 27.(d) IgA, 28. (a) Cell-mediated immune response, 29.(d) Glycoproteins, 30.(b) Antiviral proteins, 31.(a) Defence mechanisms, 32. (d) IgA, 33. (c) IgG, 34.(a) Fab regions of an antibody 35.(c) IgE, 36. (d) IgG, 37. (d) Opsonisation for increased uptake by phagocytic cells, 38.(b) Anatomical barrier 39.(c) Di-sulphide bond, 40.(c) Paratope 41. (b) N-terminal region of light and heavy chain, 42.(b) Fragment antigen binding, 43.(a) Kappa only, 44.(a) 5-10 aminoacids that form antigen binding site, 45.(b) Antigenicity, 46. (d) All of these, 47.(a) 2 Fab region and 1 Fc region, 48.(c) Both IgM and IgG, 49.(b) IgM, 50.(c) IgM, 51.(d) Antibodies 52.(b) Thymus, 53.(d) Injection of immunoglobulins, 54. (c) Betaglobulin, 55.(a) Antigen binding site, 56.(c) Framework region, 57.(c) IgM, 58. (d) Immunogens, 59.(d) All of these, 60.(a) Proteins, 61. (d) Epitopes, 62.(c) Hapten, 63.(a) A carrier protein 64.(c) Both a and b, 65.(d) All of these, 66. c) Penicillin, 67.(d) All of the above, 68. a) Epitope, 69. (d) Carbohydrates, protein and lipid, 70.(a) Pentamer with 10 antigen binding sites, 71.(a) Detects molecule even at low concentration, 72.(b) Capture antibody, 73. (d) All of the above, 74. (d) Infection with disease-causing organism followed by recovery, 75.(b) C3bBb, 76.(c) C3, 77.(a) Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells, 78.(b) Classical Pathway, 79.(a) C1q, 80.(a) IgM, 81.(c) C1s, 82. (a) C3, 83.(c) Lectin Binding Pathway, 84. (d) C9, 85.(b) C3b, 86.(c) Both a and b, 87.(c) Both a and b, 88.(c) Both a and b, 89.(d) All of these, 90.(a) Ca, 91.(a) antibody-antigen complexes, 92.(c) Microorganism or its toxins, 93.(c) C3b, 94.(b) Act via perforin and granzyme B, 95.(c) Both of the above, 96.(c) Serve as the signal transducer, 97.(c) IgA, 98. (d) Mast cells, 99. (c) IgE, 100.(b) MHC I, 101.(b) Months to even years, 102.(c) Defence system, 103.(a) Granulocytes104.(b) Macrophages, 105.(c) It is released as part of the adaptive immune response, 106.(c) Activation of inflammation, 107.(d) Plasma,108.(d) A and C are correct
- Fill in the Blanks
- Our body defence system that deals with exogenous and endogenous agents or Pathogens is called as_______________.
- The Immunity Present by birth is called as_________________.
- The type of immunity which is acquired by the exposure of antigens is called as________________.
- Non- Specific or Non-Adaptive Immunity is also called as_________________.
- Specific Immunity or Acquired immunity is also called as_________________.
- Ingestion and killing of microbes by specialized cells is called as ____________.
- The process of coating microorganism with some proteins found in plasma to make them more easily phagoctosable is called as___________.
- ___________Offers general protection from all pathogens and antigens.
- Any foreign particle that triggers immune response is called as___________.
- The small part of antigen that interacts with an antibody is called as___________.
- The ability of antigen to stimulate antibody production is called as_____________.
- B-Cells are produced and matures in______________.
- T-Cells Matures in____________.
- B Cells differentiates into _____________.
- _________cells secrete antibodies in blood plasma.
- ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) allows for rapid screening and quantification of the presence of _______ in a sample.
- Antibodies are chemically ___________ in nature.
- The most abundantly found Antibody is___________.
- The Only antibody which can cross placenta is___________.
- The Antibody which helps in opsonization is______________.
- The Largest antibody in structure is______________.
- The Antibody which gives protection to developing foetus is__________.
- The antibody found in the body secretions is____________.
- The antibody which binds basophils and mast cells is__________.
- Antibody involved in Allergic reactions is______________.
- The Antibody found in the mother’s Milk is ____________.
- A molecule that reacts with specific antibody but is not immunogenic by itself called________.
- Monocytes differentiates into_____________.
- In embryonic stage lymphocytes are produced in____________.
- Immunity Obtain by mother’s milk to the developing fetus is__________.
- Cell-mediated immunity is carried out by_______ while humoral immunity is mainly carried out by _______.
- B cells mature in the________while T cells mature in the_________.
- RIA stands for_________.
- _____ cells are responsible for antibody mediated immunity.
- Ig stands for_______.
- Heavy and light chain of antibodies are held by______ bands.
- Histamine released by_________ cells.
Answers
B. Fill in the Blanks
1. Immune System, 2. Innate immunity, 3. Adaptive immunity, 4. Innate Immunity, 5. Adaptive immunity, 6. Phagocytosis, 7. Opsonization, 8. Innate Immunity, 9. Antigen, 10. Epitope, 11. Antigenicity, 12. Bone marrow, 13. Thymus, 14. Plasma cell and Memory Cell, 15. Plasma, 16. Antigen, 17. Glycoproteins, 18. IgG, 19. IgG, 20. IgG, 21. IgM, 22. IgM, 23. IgA, 24.IgE, 25.IgE, 26. IgA, 27. Hapten, 28. Macrophages, 29. Liver, 30. Passive Immunity 31. T cells/B cells, 32. Bone marrow and /Thymus, 33. Radioimmunoassay, 34. B, 35. Immunoglobulins, 36. Sulphur, 37. Mast,.
- True or False:
- Immune system protects the body from various types of infectious agents.
- True
- False
- Thymus is Secondary Lymphoid Organ
- True
- False
- Lymph nodes comes under Primary Lymphoid organs
- True
- False
- Nerve Cell is a major cell of immune system.
- True
- False
- Innate Immunity is present by birth in the body
- True
- False
- Adaptive Immunity is Acquired throughout the life time
- True
- False
- Innate immunity is specific
- True
- False
- Infected cells release specialized glycoproteins called as interferons when gets infected
- True
- False
- Anti-venom given during the snake bite provides Passive Immunity
- True
- False
- Plasma cells Secrets Antibodies
- True
- False
- Monocytes are the Precursors of Dendritic cells.
- True
- False
- Suppressor T cells Guards overproduction of antibodies and overactivity of Cytotoxic T cells.
- True
- False
- The small part of antigen that interacts with Antibodies is called Paratope
- True
- False
- Haptens are low molecular weight antigenic molecules
- True
- False
- Haptens triggers immune response with the help of carrier molecule
- True
- False
- All Immunoglobulins are Glycoproteins but all glycoproteins are not Immunoglobulins.
- True
- False
- IgM is the Most abundantly found antibody in blood plasma.
- True
- False
- IgA is found in the mother’s milk colostrum
- True
- False
- IgE is Responsible for Allergic Reactions
- True
- False
- IgG is the largest Antibody in the Structure
- True
- False
- IgD is Expressed on the surface of the B-cells
- True
- False
- Classical pathway of complement system is activated by Antibodies
- True
- False
- Light and heavy chains of antibodies are joined by phosphodiester bonds
- True
- False
- For Specific types of antigens there are specific antibodies
- True
- False
- T- Helper Cell expresses CD8 Molecule on their surface.
- True
- False
Answers
( C. True or False)
1. (a) True, 2. (b) False, 3. (b) False, 4. (b) False, 5. (a) True,6. (a) True,7.(b) False, 8. (b) False, 9. (a) True, 10. (a) True,11. (a) True,12. (a) True,13. (b) False, 14.(b) False, 15. (a) True,16.(a) True,17. (b) False, 18. (a) True,19. (a) True,20. (b) False, 21. (a) True,22.(a) True,23. (b) False, 24. (a) True,25.(b) False
- Answer in one sentence
- Which systems protects body against disease-causing microbes?
- What is immunology?
- What is innate immunity?
- What is immune system?
- What does ELISA stand for?
- What does RIA stand for?
- Which cells releases histamine?
- Who is the father of immunology?
- What is antigen?
- What is antibody?
- What is immunogenicity?
- What is heptens?
- Give the names of five major classes of antibodies?
- Which antibody is predominant in saliva?
- Which immunity present from birth?
- What is acquired or adaptive immunity?
- Which immunoglobulin has the highest avidity?
- Which type of antigen-presenting molecule is found on all nucleated cells?
- Which cells produces antibody?
- What is humoral immunity?
- What is complement system?
- What is Cell mediated Immunity?
- What is Paratope?
- What is Epitope?
- What are Exogenous Antigens?
- What is Phagocytosis?
- What is function of Macrophages?
- What is Function of B-Cell?
- What is Function of Suppressor T-Cell?
- What is Function of Cytotoxic T-Cell?
- What is Role Memory Cell?
- What is Passive immunity?
- What is the site of maturation for T lymphocytes?
- What is the site of maturation for B lymphocytes?
- What are the components of third line of defence?
- What are two pathways of complement system?
- What is first line of defence?
- What is anatomical barrier?
- What is physiological barrier?
- What is the role of T-Helper cell in immunity?
- What does MHC stand for?
- What are Interferons?
- What is primary function of Antibody E?
- Which is the Largest Antibody?
- What is principal of ELISA?
- What is Active Immunity?
- What is Autoimmune Disease?
- What are the Three kinds of cells in which T-Cell differentiates into?
- What are the Components involved in second line of defense?
- What are Primary Lymphoid Organs?
- Answers
One Sentence Answer questions
- Our Immune System protects us against the disease-causing microbes and other various pathogens.
- Immunology is the study of Immune system of body.
- The defence mechanism which is present by birth in our body is called as innate immunity.
- The defence system of our body which protects us from various disease-causing microbes, Pathogens and Antigens is called as Immune system.
- ELISA Stands for “Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay”.
- RIA Stands for “Radio Immunoassay”.
- Histamines are released by Mast Cells.
- Louis Pasteur is known as father of immunology.
- Anything that is capable of generating an immune response is called as an Antigen.
- Antibodies are the glycoprotein which are produced by the immune system as a result of the introduction of an antigen into the body.
- The strength of an immune response that an antigen can generate is called as immunogenicity.
- Haptens are low molecular weight molecules with an antigenic determinant not capable of generating immune response independently.
- There are five major class of antibodies that are IgA, IgG, IgD, IgM and IgE.
- Antibody IgE is predominantly found in Saliva.
- Innate immunity is present by birth in our body.
- The Immunity which is gained throughout life time is called acquired immunity.
- IgM has the highest avidity.
- MHC is an antigen-presenting molecule that is found on all nucleated cells.
- Plasma cell differentiated from B cell produces Antibodies.
- The Immunity provided by the antibodies is called as Humoral Immunity.
- The complement system is of over 20 different protein molecules found in the blood that helps to destroy pathogen and eliminate infection.
- CMI lacks antibodies, it contains various cells like phagocytes, T lymphocytes and release of various cytokines in response to an antigen.
- Paratope is an Antigen-Antibody interaction site found on Antibody.
- Epitope is an Antigen-Antibody interaction site found on Antigen.
- Exogenous antigens are the antigens that enters into the host from the outside of the body from environment.
- Phagocytosis is the process of engulfing and eliminating the particles, microorganism and foreign substance by some specialised cells.
- Macrophage acts as Antigen presenting cell to B and T Lymphocytes and also perform phagocytosis.
- B-Cell recognises the foreign antigen and mediate the production of antigen specific antibodies against the antigen.
- Suppressor T-cell Guards against the overproduction of antibodies and overactivity of cytotoxic T-cell.
- Cytotoxic T-cell detect and kills the infected body cells.
- Memory cell keeps the memory of initial and original stimulation by immune system against any specific antigen.
- Passive immunity is the transfer of readymade active antibodies from one person to another.
- T lymphocytes matures in Thymus.
- B lymphocytes matures in Bone Marrow.
- Third Line of defence includes B and T lymphocytes.
- Complement system includes two pathways Classical Pathways and Alternate Pathways.
- First line of defence includes innate immunity which comes from the birth of an individual Skin, Lysozyme in Saliva, HCL and digestive enzymes in stomach and nasal secretions.
- Anatomical barrier blocks the entry of organism into the body. They are the component of innate immunity which includes skin and mucous membrane.
- Physiological barrier is component of innate immunity it includes factors like body temperature, pH and various body secretions which prevents growth of many pathogens and microorganism.
- Helper T cell Assists the immune system by helping other cells in immune system to achieve an efficient immune response.
- MHC Stands for Major Histocompatibility Complex.
- Interferons are the chemicals released by the infected cells to protect surrounding cells from the infection.
- Antibody IgE has the role in the allergic reactions.
- IgM is the largest pentameric antibody.
- ELISA is based on the ability of antibodies to couple with enzymes to produce conjugates.
- When body actively produces its own antibodies upon interaction with antibodies is called as Active Immunity.
- Autoimmune disease is a disorder where our body can’t different between self and non-self-antigen.
- T cell differentiates into: Helper T-cell, Cytotoxic T-cell, and Suppressor T-cell.
- The second line of defence includes Circulating WBCs and Macrophages.
- Primary lymphoid organs are those organs where differentiation, proliferation and maturation of pluripotent stem cells into immune competent cell takes place.
- Terminology:
Adaptive immunity Host defences that are mediated by B cells andT cells following exposure to antigen and that exhibit specificity, diversity, memory, and self-nonself discrimination.
Adjuvants Factors that are added to a vaccine mixture to enhance theimmune response to antigen by activating innate immune cells. Deadmycobacterium was among the original adjuvants, but more refinedpreparation include alum, cytokines, and/or lipids.
Antibodies Immunoglobulin proteins consisting of two identical heavychains and two identical light chains, that recognize a particular epitopeon an antigen and facilitates clearance of that antigen. Membrane-boundantibody is expressed by B cells that have not encountered antigen; secretedantibody is produced by plasma cells. Some antibodies are multiples of thebasic four-chain structure.
Antigen Any substance (usually foreign) that binds specifically to anantibody or a T-cell receptor; often is used as a synonym for immunogen.
Antigen-presenting cell (APC) Any cell that can process andpresent antigenic peptides in association with class II MHC moleculesand deliver a costimulatory signal necessary for T-cell activation. Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells constitute the professional APCs.
Nonprofessional APCs, which function in antigen presentation only forshort periods include thymic epithelial cells and vascular endothelial cells.
B lymphocytes (B cells) Lymphocytes that mature in the bone marrowand express membrane-bound antibodies. Aft er interacting with antigen, they differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells and memory cells.
B-cell receptor (BCR) Complex comprising a membrane-boundimmunoglobulin molecule and two associated signal-transducing Ig_/Ig_molecules.antigen-specific T cells. It protects against intracellular bacteria, viruses, andcancer and is responsible for graft rejection. Transfer of primed T cells confersthis type of immunity on the recipient.
Complement A group of serum and cell membrane proteins thatinteract with one another and with other molecules of innate andadaptive immunity to carry out key effector functions leading to pathogenrecognition and elimination.
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs, or Tc cells) An effector T cell (usuallyCD8_) that can mediate the lysis of target cells bearing antigenic peptidescomplexed with a class I MHC molecule.
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) An assay for quantitatingeither antibody or antigen by use of an enzyme-linked antibody and asubstrate that forms a coloured reaction product.
Epitope Th e portion of an antigen that is recognized and bound by anantibody or TCR-MHC combination; also called antigenic determinant.
Fab (fragment antigen binding) region at the N-terminus ofthe antibody molecule that interact with antigen. Th is antibody fragment, consisting of one light chain and part of one heavy chain, linked by aninterchain disulphide bond, is obtained by brief papain digestion
Granulocytes Any leukocyte that contains cytoplasmic granules, particularly the basophil, eosinophil, and neutrophil
Hapten A low-molecular-weight molecule that can be madeimmunogenic by conjugation to a suitable carrier.
Humoral immune response Host defences that are mediated byantibody present in the plasma, lymph, and tissue fluids. It protects againstextracellular bacteria and foreign macromolecules. Transfer of antibodiesconfers this type of immunity on the recipient. See also cell-mediatedimmune response.
Immunity A state of protection from a particular infectious disease
Innate immunity non-antigen specific host defences that exist priorto exposure to an antigen and involve anatomic, physiologic, endocyticand phagocytic, anti-microbial, and inflammatory mechanisms, andwhich exhibit no adaptation or memory characteristics. See also adaptiveimmunity.
MHC (major histocompatibility complex) A group of genes encodingcell-surface molecules that are required for antigen presentation to T cellsand for rapid graft rejection. It is called the H-2 complex in the mouse andthe HLA complex in humans.
Passive immunity Temporary adaptive immunity conferred by thetransfer of immune products, such as antibody (antiserum), from an immune individual to a nonimmune one.
Phagocytes Cells with the capacity to internalize and degrade microbesor particulate antigens; neutrophils and monocytes are the mainphagocytes.
Phagocytosis Th e cellular uptake of particulate materials by engulfment; a form ofendocytosis.
Plasma cell Th e antibody-secreting effector cell of the B lineage.
Radioimmunoassay (RIA) A highly sensitive technique for measuringantigen or antibody that involves competitive binding of radiolabelledantigen or antibody.
T lymphocyte A lymphocyte that matures in the thymus and expresses aT-cell receptor, CD3, and CD4 or CD8.
T-cell receptor (TCR) Antigen-binding molecule expressed on thesurface of T cells and associated with the CD3 molecule. TCRs areheterodimeric, consisting of either an and chain or a and chain.
Thymus A primary lymphoid organ, in the thoracic cavity, where T-cellmaturation takes place.
Reference
1. Lewin, B.. Gene VI . Wiley Eastern Ltd., New Delhi.
2. Sinnott, E.W.L.C.Dunn, and L.C.Dobzhansky, T. 1985. Principles of Genetics. Tata McGraw Hill. New Delhi.
3. Stern, C. Principles of Human genetics. S.Chand & Co. New Delhi.
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